Meilleur SAP C-TFIN52-05 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: C-TFIN52-05
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Solution Consultant Financials - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 2005)
Questions et réponses: 299 Q&As

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NO.1 When you create asset master records this data is automatically adopted from the
asset class you
specify
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

SAP examen   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05

NO.2 Asset class is a selection criterion in all standard reports in FI-AA
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.3 Profit and Loss using the Period Accounting and Cost of Sales Accounting:
A. The operating result can be different.
B. In Cost of Sales accounting, the output of a period and the total cost of this period are
summarized
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
E. In period accounting the sales revenue for a period and sales costs of the period are
summarized.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Payment Medium Workbench. (Choose Three)
A. New format can be created with little programming experience.
B. PMW facilitates uniformity.
C. Before PMW it is easy to maintain the program used in payment media.
D. PMW facilitates for select vendor open items during automatic payment run
E. In PMW format can easily be changed with making modification.
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.5 Chart of depreciation is a catalog of country specific depreciation areas structured
according to various
business aspects
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.6 You define number assignment as either internal or external
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.7 Several charts of depreciation can also be assigned to an asset class
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.8 Chart of accounts can be modified to fit your requirements, but chart of depreciation is
always country
specific
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.9 Asset classes (Choose Five)
A. consist of a master data section and a depreciation area section
B. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets, you can
choose that
they be specified by the system
C. are assigned to at least one chart of depreciation
D. consist of a master data section only
E. asset classes are created at client level
F. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets
G. you can suppress individual depreciation areas in each asset class
H. asset classes are created at company code level
Answer: A,B,C,E,G

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NO.10 mySAP ERP delivers standard depreciation areas and additional areas cannot be
defined
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.11 You cannot specify attributes of each individual depreciation area
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

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NO.12 Chart of depreciation (Choose Three)
A. is assigned to company code
B. you cannot add/delete additional areas
C. it is also possible to open depreciation areas after the production start of the system
D. you can delete areas you do not need
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.13 Each company code has its own number range and company codes cannot share
number ranges
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following statements about creating customer master records are
correct?
(Choose Four)
A. The company code is always a required entry.
B. An account group always gets assigned to a customer.
C. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or
optional,
depending upon the company code
D. The account number may be assigned by the user externally.
E. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or
optional,
depending upon the account group
Answer: B,C,D,E

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NO.15 Debit Balance Check. (Choose Three)
A. Debit balance check can be maintained in the Vendor line items.
B. Vendor who has a debit balance, all of his line items always shown in the exception list
C. We can change the debit balance check.
D. Debit balance check can be carried out after payment run.
E. Debit Balance check is required if Vendor has a debit balance.
F. Debit balance check is carried out after payment proposal.
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.16 Which of the following about vendor transaction is correct (Multi)? (Choose Two)
A. A vendor down payment request is a noted item.
B. A vendor down payment request cannot be included in payment program to produce down
payment
C. A vendor down payment is cleared after final invoice is received from vendor.
D. Vendor down payment is shown on balance sheet under normal reconciliation account for
payables.
E. Special g/l transaction is one, which is included in spl purpose ledger under coding block
in G/L
account
Answer: A,C

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NO.17 Which of following statements are correct?
A. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are
already created in
financial accounting but not yet created in sales and distribution.
B. The customer master data compares the customers in the legacy system with the
customers in the R/3
System.
C. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are
already created in
purchasing but not yet in sales and distribution.
D. The customer mater data comparison program checks whether the customer master
record contains a
telephone number.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Controlling area can include one or more company codes
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.19 You define a financial statement version in two steps: (Choose Two)
A. Enter in the directory of financial statement versions
B. Define hierarchy levels and assign accounts
C. None of the above
Answer: A,B

SAP   certification C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05   certification C-TFIN52-05

NO.20 Cross company code Transaction
A. For cross company code transaction no configuration needs to be maintained
B. Cross company code document Transaction number contain company code of second
company number, document number of first company code and fiscal year.
C. All wrong
Answer: C

SAP   certification C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05

NO.21 In a Payment method definition: (Choose Two)
A. Define allowed currency for company code
B. Define allowed currency for country level
C. Define a maximum and min payment
D. Define house bank link
Answer: B,C

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NO.22 Chart of depreciation is assigned to company code and necessary data for asset
accounting is added
to company code. Hence company code is available for use in asset accounting
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

SAP   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05

NO.23 An account group (multi) (Choose Three)
A. Is defined for every company code.
B. Defines the number range for a mater record.
C. Uses a field status group to control the field layout for the maintenance of mater records
D. Determines one-time accounts for accounts payable and accounts receivable.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.24 Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose Three)
A. A house bank can be assigned to a business area within the payment program
configuration
B. A House bank account can be defined in more than one currency
C. The payments program can use a different House bank for each different payment method
D. When creating a House bank, you do not need to specify the country.
E. House bank master data must be created in advance, before assigning the House bank to
a payment
method in the payment program configuration
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.25 All reconciliation accounts and all G/L accounts with open item transactions in foreign
currency must
be assigned to the G/L account for realized losses and gains. Which of the following options
exist for this
assignment: (Choose Two)
A. A single G/L account can not be used per currencies and currency types.
B. A single G/L account can be used per currency.
C. A single G/L account can not be used per currency type
D. A single G/L account can be used for all currencies and currency types
Answer: B,D

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NO.26 Highest priority for deriving functional area is:
A. Manual Entry
B. Validation
C. CO document
D. Substitution
E. CO Master Data
Answer: A

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NO.27 Screen layout rules control
A. field selection
B. all are correct
C. maintenance level
D. references/copies
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which of the following statements about financial reporting are correct.?
A. When displaying a financial statement, the system can automatically calculate the profit
and loss
statement result.
B. You can obtain a summarized financial statement for any hierarchy level defined in the
financial
statement version
C. A financial statement version cannot include more than one company code, unless you
are using FI-LC
D. A financial statement version displays either a balance sheet or a profit and lost statement,
not both.
E. The system can translate a financial statement into any currency for reporting purposes.
Answer: E

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NO.29 Drilldown reporting is a tool that enables you to analyze G/L account transaction figure
and financial
statements
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

SAP   certification C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05

NO.30 Layout for the master data of each asset class defines
A. number of tab pages
B. field groups that appear on tab pages
C. names of tab pages
D. all are correct
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: C-HANATEC-1
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Technology Associate - SAP HANA 1.0)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following are recovery types in SAP HANA database? (Choose two)
A. Recovery with incremental backup
B. Recovery until cancel
C. Full recovery
D. Point in time recovery
Answer: C,D

SAP   C-HANATEC-1   C-HANATEC-1   C-HANATEC-1   C-HANATEC-1

NO.2 Which of the following must be running to view SAP HANA Diagnosis Files if the SAP HANA database is offline?
A. sapstartsrv
B. SMD Agent
C. r3trans
D. disp+work
Answer: A

SAP examen   C-HANATEC-1   C-HANATEC-1

NO.3 Which actions to you need to perform to configure SAP HANA single sign-on?
A. Generate and import X.509 certificate
B. Generate and import PSE key
C. Generate and import Kerberos keytab
D. Generate and import SSH rsa key
Answer: C

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NO.4 What is the purpose of the save point process in SAP HANA?
A. Save logs to persistent storage when a transaction is committed.
B. Free up memory by saving less frequently used data to persistent storage.
C. Save changed data and logs to persistent storage on a regular basis.
D. Save changed data to persistent storage when a transaction is committed.
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which user must have SELECT privilege with the grant option on the data schema?
A. <SID>ADM
B. SYSTEM
C. _SYS_BIC
D. _SYS_REPO
Answer: D

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NO.6 What is the connection type for communication between the SAP LT Replication Server and the non-SAP source system?
A. TRFC
B. Web service
C. QRFC
D. Database
Answer: D

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Meilleur SAP C-TAW12-731 test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: C-TAW12-731
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certfied Development Associate-ABAP with SAP NetWeaver 7.31)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 START-OF-SELECTION
B. 1. INITIALIZATION
2. AT SELECTION-SCREEN
3. AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT
4. START-OF-SELECTION
C. 1. INITIALIZATION
2. AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT
3. AT SELECTION-SCREEN
4. START-OF-SELECTION
D. 1. INITIALIZATION
2. AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT
3. START-OF-SELECTION
4. AT SELECTION-SCREEN
Answer: C

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2. Which of the following tasks does the BADI implementing class perform?
A. Filtering
B. Sequencing
C. Inserting
D. Deleting
Answer: A

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3. Which boundary conditions lead to improved access time to an internal table? (Choose three)
A. Left justified part of key for sorted tables
B. Fully qualified key for sorted tables
C. Index access for hashed tables
D. Left justified part of key for hashed tables
E. Index access for standard tables
Answer: A,B,E

SAP   C-TAW12-731   C-TAW12-731
4. Which of the following predefined ABAP types is incomplete?
A. F
B. P
C. XSTRING
D. STRING
Answer: B

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5. When should you use a hashed internal table? (Choose two)
A. When accessing mainly single records
B. When accessing by secondary key
C. When accessing using the left-justified part of the key
D. When accessing always by primary key
E. When accessing by index
Answer: A,D

SAP   C-TAW12-731   C-TAW12-731   C-TAW12-731   C-TAW12-731
6. In which modularization units can you use parameters? (Choose three)
A. Event blocks such as START-OF-SELECTION
B. Function modules
C. Subroutines
D. Dialog modules such as PBO modules
E. Methods
Answer: B,C,E

SAP   C-TAW12-731   C-TAW12-731
7. You have implemented a class CL_CUSTOMER in which you defined a private attribute. From
where can you access this attribute directly? (Choose two)
A. From all methods of all subclasses of CL_CUSTOMER
B. From all methods of the class CL_CUSTOMER
C. From all methods of a class to which CL_CUSTOMER grants friendship
D. From any program using the class CL_CUSTOMER
Answer: B,C

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8. You perform an update task using update function modules and detect an error in the
program that
calls the update function modules. Which statement can be used to discard all update requests for
the current SAP LUW? (Choose two)
A. EXIT.
B. ROLLBACK WORK.
C. MESSAGE axxx(nnn).
D. MESSAGE exxx(nnn).
E. DELETE UPDATE.
Answer: B,C

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9. What happens when an authorization check fails?
A. The program is terminated.
B. The system field SY-SUBRC is set to a value other than zero.
C. A type E message is displayed.
D. A CX_AUTH_FAILED type exception is raised.
Answer: B

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10. What is the purpose of implicit enhancement points?
A. To add fields to an SAP database table
B. To add code to a standard SAP program
C. To change code in a standard SAP program
D. To create a secondary index for an SAP database table
Answer: B

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NO.2 An executable ABAP program contains a standard selection screen and uses the event blocks
AT
SELECTION-SCREEN, AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT, INITIALIZATION, START-OFSELECTION.
In which sequence will ABAP runtime call these event blocks?
A. 1. AT SELECTION-SCREEN OUTPUT

NO.3 AT SELECTION-SCREEN

NO.4 INITIALIZATION

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Code d'Examen: C-TSCM62-65
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Application Associate - Order Fulfillment with SAP ERP 6.0 EHP5)
Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 What Service Desk feature provides all the functions to analyze and monitor an entire SAP
solution centrally?
A. Root cause analysis
B. Implementation Roadmap
C. SAP Notes
D. SAP Solution Manager diagnostics
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which SAP NetWeaver component realizes cross-system application processes?
A. SAP Exchange Infrastructure (SAP XI) / SAP Process Integration (SAP PI)
B. SAP Enterprise Portal (SAP EP)
C. SAP Master Data Management (SAP MDM)
D. SAP Business Warehouse (SAP BW)
Answer: A

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NO.3 What is used to determine the item category for general value contracts (WK1)?
A. Item category group
B. Value contract material
C. You do not need to determine item categories for value contracts
D. Item usage VCTR
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements regarding quantity contracts is correct?
A. Quantity contract items will show up in the delivery due list when ready for delivery.
B. Different requested delivery dates are maintained in the schedule lines of the quantity contract.
C. Quantity contracts contain details about the customer's requested delivery dates.
D. Quantity contracts are delivered using a contract release order.
Answer: D

certification SAP   C-TSCM62-65   certification C-TSCM62-65   C-TSCM62-65 examen

NO.5 For what purposes can you use transaction variants? (Choose two)
A. To define values in a selection screen for a report
B. To add new external fields to the sales document
C. To hide fields in a sales order
D. To define default values for data fields
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 Using rental contracts, which settings are mandatory for working with periodic billing?
(Choose
two)
A. Maintenance of a factory calendar that is assigned to the customer master
B. Assignment of a billing plan type to the item category of the rental contract item
C. Maintenance of a separate billing type that is assigned to the sales document type of the rental
contract
D. Assignment of the respective billing relevance (order-relevant billing – billing plan) to the item
category of the rental contract item
Answer: B,D

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NO.7 As a member of the project team, you are asked to set up the system so that user has to enter
an
order reason when processing a sales order. It should be possible to save the incomplete order,
but further processing should not be possible until the Order Reason field is filled.
How do you implement this requirement?
A. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and mark it as mandatory.
B. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and assign a status group in
which the fields General, Delivery, and Billing Document are selected.
C. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field, assign it to the sales
document type, and set the status to "released for further process steps".
D. You define an incompletion procedure with the Order Reason field and assign it to a sales
document type that has the "Incompletion Message" indicator set.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Based on which of the following dates is the availability check (ATP) carried out?
A. Requested delivery date
B. Replenishment lead date
C. Material availability date
D. Goods issue date
Answer: C

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NO.9 In which of the following master records can partial delivery agreements be stored? (Choose
two)
A. In the customer material info record
B. In the material master record
C. In the condition master record
D. In the customer master record
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 What can be identified as the most likely reason for a delivery split in a collective delivery run?
A. The shipping conditions of two separate items in the sales order differ from one another.
B. The sales order line items have the same route and the same shipping point, but different shipto
parties.
C. The physical weight of the total line items exceeds the capacity of the truck that is being used to
deliver the product.
D. The loading group of one of the items in the sales order differs from the others.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 200-045
Nom d'Examen: Isilon (Isilon Clustered Storage Professional Exam)
Questions et réponses: 70 Q&As

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NO.1 SnapShotIQ is configured with default settings. You take a one-time snapshot called "test" of the
"/ifs/data" directory. In which of the following ways can you access this snapshot? (Choose 2)
A.Via the "/ifs/.snapshot/test" directory
B.Via the "/snapshots/data" directory
C.Via the "/ifs/data/.snapshot/test" directory
D.Via the "/ifs/data/copies" directory
Answer:A C

certification Isilon   200-045   certification 200-045   200-045

NO.2 The client workstations on your network are configured to use DNS server 10.10.10.1, which is
authoritative for the domain "isilon.com". You would like to configure SmartConnect with a zone named
"cluster.isilon.com". Your SmartConnect virtual IP is 10.10.10.100. Which of the following statements is
most accurate in regard to DNS and SmartConnect? (Choose 1)
A.The DNS server 10.10.10.1 must be configured with a delegation (NS) record delegating
"cluster.isilon.com" to the SmartConnect virtual IP 10.10.10.100.
B.The DNS server 10.10.10.1 must be configured with a host (A) record resolving "cluster.isilon.com" to
the SmartConnect virtual IP 10.10.10.100.
C.In order to utilize SmartConnect, the client workstations must be configured to use 10.10.10.100 as
their DNS server.
D.The SmartConnect service must be configured to use 10.10.10.1 as its DNS server
Answer:A

certification Isilon   certification 200-045   200-045 examen   200-045 examen

NO.3 You have a three node IQ 3000 cluster. How many phases of the restriper can be active at one time?
(Choose 1)
A.Three phases of the restriper can be active at one time.
B.Only one phase of the restriper can be active at one time.
C.Six phases of the restriper can be active at one time.
D.Nine phases of the restriper can be active at one time
Answer:B

certification Isilon   200-045   200-045 examen   200-045 examen   200-045

NO.4 You have a five node IQ 1920 cluster protected with +1. How many nodes of the cluster have to be up
in order for OneFS to allow writes to the file system? (Choose 1)
A.At least four nodes must be up
B.At least two nodes must be up
C.At least three nodes must be up
D.All five nodes must be up
Answer:C

Isilon   200-045   200-045

NO.5 Which command line tool is used to manage replacing a failed disk drive? (Choose 1)
A.The "isi devices" tool
B.No command line tool is used - replaced drives are detected automatically by the node.
C.The "isi config" tool
D.The "isi disks" tool
Answer:A

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NO.6 Which of the following commands can be used to start the FlexProtect phase of the restriper? (Choose
1)
A.Enter "isi config", then "flexprotect start"
B.Enter "isi config", then "restripe start flexprotect"
C."isi restripe start flexprotect"
D."isi flexprotect start"
Answer:C

Isilon   certification 200-045   200-045

NO.7 Which of the following best describes OneFS's NIC redundancy feature? (Choose 1)
A.NIC redundancy allows dynamic IP routing to occur between default gateways accessible via the
External-1 and External-2 networks.
B.NIC redundancy allows External-1 and External-2 to be aggregated into one logical link, so that either
NIC can fail without interrupting external network access.
C.NIC redundancy allows External-1 and External-2 to be utilized in an Active/Passive failover mode.
D.NIC redundancy allows clients to connect to the same file sharing protocols via either External-1 or
External-2.
Answer:B

Isilon examen   200-045   certification 200-045   200-045 examen

NO.8 You have a three node cluster. One node fails, and is in a "DOWN" state. How will the restriper
respond to this situation? (Choose 1)
A.The FlexProtect phase of the restriper will start automatically
B.The AutoBalance phase of the restriper will start automatically
C.The Collect phase of the restriper will start automatically
D.No phase of the restriper will start automatically
Answer:D

Isilon   certification 200-045   certification 200-045

NO.9 You have a three node cluster with SmartConnect configured. Which of the following is a correct
statement in regard to the SmartConnect virtual IP? (Choose 1)
A.The SmartConnect virtual IP is active on the highest-numbered node of the cluster. If that node fails, the
virtual IP will move to node 1.
B.The SmartConnect virtual IP is active on node 1. If node 1 fails, the virtual IP will move to node 2.
C.The SmartConnect virtual IP is active on all nodes of the cluster.
D.The SmartConnect virtual IP moves dynamically between nodes of the cluster based on node
performance.
Answer:B

Isilon   200-045 examen   certification 200-045   200-045

NO.10 Which of the following statements best describe the use of SNMP with an Isilon cluster? (Choose 2)
A.The cluster can be configured via SNMP
B.The cluster can generate SNMP traps based on Alerts
C.The cluster can generate SNMP traps based on configuration file changes
D.The cluster can be monitored via SNMP
E.The file system can be browsed via SNMP
Answer:B D

Isilon   certification 200-045   200-045   200-045 examen   200-045

NO.11 Which of the following methods can be used to verify connectivity to a LDAP directory server? (Choose
1)
A.From the command line of a node, use the "ldapsearch" utility.
B.From the command line of a node, enter "isi ldap config". Pick menu option 3 "Check server
connectivity".
C.From the WebAdmin of a node, go to "File System" / "Directory Services" / "LDAP Services". Click
"Check server connectivity"
D.From the command line of a node, enter "isi_ldap_check".
Answer:A

Isilon   200-045   200-045 examen   certification 200-045

NO.12 You have a three node cluster configured with +1, and are preparing to add a fourth node. Which of the
following describes the impact of adding the fourth node in regard to file striping? (Choose 1)
A.Files were striped 2+1 with three nodes, and will now be striped 3+1 with four nodes.
B.Files were striped 2+1 with three nodes, and will now be striped 2+1 with four nodes.
C.There is no impact to file striping for existing data, but new data will be striped 3+1
D.Files were striped 2+1 with three nodes, and will now be striped 2+2 with four nodes.
Answer:A

Isilon   200-045   certification 200-045   200-045   200-045 examen

NO.13 Which of the following statements best describes the benefits of the file system journal in OneFS?
(Choose 1)
A.The file system journal is used for coalescing writes before committing them to disk.
B.The file system journal is used to store metadata about the file system in a reliable way.
C.The file system journal is used to permit multiple threads to commit writes to the same file.
D.The file system journal is used to ensure the consistency of the file system.
Answer:D

Isilon examen   certification 200-045   certification 200-045   200-045

NO.14 SyncIQ throttle limits can be applied on a per-replication policy basis. (True/False)
A.True
B.False
Answer:B

Isilon examen   200-045   200-045

NO.15 You have a three node cluster. The AutoBalance phase of the restriper is running. A disk drive fails.
Which of the following best describes the cluster's response to this failure? (Choose 1)
A.The AutoBalance phase of the restriper completes. Once AutoBalance is finished, the FlexProtect
phase of the restriper runs to repair data from the disk failure.
B.The AutoBalance phase of the restriper is cancelled. The Collect phase of the restriper runs to repair
data from the disk failure. After Collect completes, AutoBalance is start.
C.Since the AutoBalance phase of the restriper is already running, it will repair data from the disk failure.
D.The AutoBalance phase of the restriper is cancelled. The FlexProtect phase of the restriper runs to
repair data from the disk failure. After FlexProtect completes, AutoBalance is started
Answer:D

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NO.16 Which of the following best describes the expected behavior when attempting to add a node running
OneFS 4.5 to a cluster running OneFS 4.1? (Choose 1)
A.The node will be joined to the cluster.
B.You will be prompted to upgrade the cluster.
C.You will be prompted to either upgrade the cluster, or downgrade the node
D.You will be prompted to downgrade the node.
Answer:C

Isilon examen   200-045   200-045 examen   200-045 examen   200-045

NO.17 Which of the following statements about SmartConnect Advanced is NOT correct? (Choose 1)
A.SmartConnect supports CIFS failover
B.SmartConnect supports NFS failover
C.SmartConnect allows individual nodes to be included or excluded from zones
D.SmartConnect is based on standard DNS
Answer:A

Isilon examen   200-045   200-045   certification 200-045   200-045

NO.18 Which of the following commands can be used to view the status of restripe operations? (Choose 2)
A."isi status"
B."isi config"
C."restripe status"
D."isi restripe"
Answer:A D

Isilon examen   200-045   200-045 examen   200-045 examen   200-045 examen

NO.19 You have a cluster with the SnapshotIQ module licensed. The ability for users to view and access the
".snapshot" directories can be controlled per protocol. (True/False)
A.True
B.False
Answer:A

Isilon   certification 200-045   200-045 examen   certification 200-045

NO.20 Which of the following nodes has the highest ratio of performance per TB of storage? (Choose 1)
A.IQ 3000
B.IQ 6000
C.IQ 1920
D.EX 6000
Answer:C

Isilon   certification 200-045   certification 200-045

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-708.1
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Specialist: Avaya Voice Self-Service Design Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 77 Q&As

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NO.1 A garden supply retailer begins taking orders for spring bulbs in early winter. Last year, their customers
started calling for order shipment status as early as late winter. The contact center is open Monday
through Friday. This is a seasonal increase in call volume only. Which three benefits would an Avaya
Voice Self-Service solution provide? (Choose three.)
A.Equalize trunking requirements throughout the entire year.
B.Permit callers to connect to an agent during non-business hours.
C.Permit callers to check on the scheduled date of the shipment 24x7.
D.Eliminate the repetitive or routine task of providing the shipping date to the caller.
E.Reduces the time the caller waits for an agent by automatically providing the date of the scheduled
shipment
Answer:C D E

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NO.2 A thriving mail order business has a busy contact center that takes orders from existing and new
customers. This business has chosen to implement an Avaya Voice Self-Service solution to process
routine orders to reduce the staffing costs. What are three benefits that this company can expect to derive
from implementing an Avaya Voice Self-Service solution? (Choose three.)
A.Agents can focus on complex customer issues.
B.Solution provides an effective 1-way voicemail solution.
C.Answers to common questions are available at any time.
D.Callers are connected directly to the agent of their choice.
E.Callers can be directed to routine information without agent assistance.
Answer:A C E

Avaya   certification 132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   certification 132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.3 Your customer's company has extensive web services architecture. All communication with customers
has been through web chat and email. Customer demand has required the company to setup a call center.
They can only afford to staff a few agents, and firmly believe that a speech application that accesses their
existing web services would fulfill 70-80% of their incoming calls. Which solution would meet their
requirements?
A.Avaya Voice Portal and IVR Designer
B.Avaya Interactive Response and IVR Designer
C.Avaya Voice Portal and Avaya Dialog Designer
D.Avaya Interactive Response and Avaya Dialog Designer
Answer:C

Avaya examen   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.4 Which integration alternative provides optimal routing to an agent based on information gathered at any
given point within a Voice Self-Service application?
A.Avaya Interaction Center
B.Avaya Proactive Contact
C.Avaya Operational Analyst
D.Avaya Interactive Intelligence
Answer:A

Avaya   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.5 Which two hardware components are required for Avaya Interactive Response (IR) using Voice over IP?
(Choose two.)
A.NMS boards
B.Dialogic boards
C.Sun Sparc-based server
D.Communication Manager
Answer:C D

Avaya   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.6 An Avaya Voice Self-Service customer has a limited service contract for IT and telecommunications.
They only have staff available from 9 a.m. to 5 p.m.; otherwise they are available using a pager. The
contact center uses Avaya contact center and reporting solutions. The contact center has staff onsite 24
hours a day. They actively monitor their agent pool and have offered to monitor Voice Self-Service ports if
they can have access to the data center to monitor the system's health. There are significant security
concerns with providing this type of access to non-technical staff. Which alternative would allow the
contact center personnel some monitoring capabilities?
A.Place the self-service ports behind the Communication Manager; monitor the ports on the Call
Management System (CMS) using real-time reports.
B.Place the self-service ports in front of the Communication Manager; monitor the ports on the Call
Management System (CMS) using real-time reports.
C.Place the self-service ports behind the Communication Manager; turn on Redirect On No-Answer
(RONA) to route calls to supervisory personnel when ports go out of service.
D.Place the self-service ports in front the Communication Manager; turn on Redirect On No-Answer
(RONA) to route calls to supervisory personnel when ports go out of service.
Answer:A

certification Avaya   132-S-708.1   certification 132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.7 Which two represent native capabilities of Avaya Dialog Designer? (Choose two.)
A.Speaker Verification
B.Application Simulation
C.TAS Application Development
D.VoiceXML Application Development
Answer:B D

certification Avaya   132-S-708.1 examen   132-S-708.1 examen   certification 132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.8 A customer wants to answer technical support questions 24x7 yet avoid paying for increased staffing
for night and weekends. Forty-five percent of agent calls are simple fixes that include power-down and
power-up support, explaining where to obtain the three-page troubleshooting document, and the faxing of
that document. Agents also sell post-warranty maintenance plans and currently have only a 5% take rate
due to high call volumes from new customers. One solution is to off-load agent calls with an Avaya Voice
Self-Service solution. Which two activities are specifically targeted at reducing operational expenses and
meeting business requirements? (Choose two.)
A.Expensive customer service agents should not have to answer routine information requests.
B.Technical support calls should be delivered to customer service agents during the night and weekend
shifts.
C.Caller's intent should be effectively and consistently identified and then routed to a self-service
transaction or an agent.
D.Overflow calls should be routed to a voicemail system where they can describe their problem and get a
callback with the solution.
Answer:A C

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.9 A current Avaya Interactive Response (IR) customer is aware that the industry is moving to web-based
self-service architectures. In addition to the benefits of moving to advanced technologies, which two
business elements should be considered? (Choose two.)
A.need to replace the speech servers
B.capital investments in current equipment
C.time needed to convert any existing TAS applications to VoiceXML
D.inability to use VoIP until Avaya Voice Portal has been implemented
Answer:B C

Avaya examen   132-S-708.1 examen   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1 examen

NO.10 Which two application servers are supported by Avaya Dialog Designer? (Choose two.)
A.Microsoft IIS
B.Apache Tomcat
C.IBM WebSphere
D.Oracle J2EE Web Server
Answer:B C

Avaya examen   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1 examen

NO.11 A company has decided to enter the ISV business and create custom Voice Self-Service applications for
Avaya platforms. They want to learn a single tool set and would like to be in this business for the
foreseeable future. Which skill set should they develop to be compatible with current and future Voice
Self-Service applications?
A.IVR Designer and VoiceXML
B.Dialog Designer and VoiceXML
C.Voice@Work and ScriptBuilder
D.IVR Designer and Transaction Assembly Script
Answer:B

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.12 Which two hardware components are required for Avaya Voice Portal using Voice over IP? (Choose
two.)
A.NMS boards
B.Dialogic boards
C.Intel/AMD server
D.Communication Manager
Answer:C D

Avaya   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.13 Which two methods can be used to get and put data between Avaya Interactive Response (IR) and
Avaya Interaction Center (IC)? (Choose two.)
A.LAN Gateway
B.DLG Connector
C.VOX Connector provided with IC
D.IC Connector provided with Avaya Dialog Designer
Answer:C D

certification Avaya   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   certification 132-S-708.1

NO.14 Which three elements are required to run an Avaya Voice Portal solution with a speech application?
(Choose three.)
A.Speech Server
B.Domain Controller
C.Media Processing Platform (MPP)
D.Voice Portal Management System (VPMS)
E.Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)
Answer:A C D

Avaya   132-S-708.1   certification 132-S-708.1   certification 132-S-708.1

NO.15 A thriving mail order business has a busy contact center that takes orders from existing and new
customers. To reduce staffing costs, this company has chosen to implement an Avaya Voice Self-Service
solution to process routine orders. They would like to implement a solution for placing calls to customers
when the status of their order changes (processed, shipped, cancelled). They want the calls to provide
the same information as if the customer had come in and requested it from the Avaya Voice Self-Service
solution. Which speech elements would be required to implement this solution?
A.Voice over IP (VoIP)
B.Text-to-Speech (TTS)
C.Speech Application Builder (SAB)
D.Open Speech Dialog Modules (OSDM)
Answer:B

Avaya   132-S-708.1 examen   132-S-708.1

NO.16 A customer currently has one contact center in Denver using Avaya Interactive Response (IR). They
use TDM, Speech Recognition (ASR), and Text-to-Speech (TTS). In addition to these features, their
applications are all written in TAS. They are very satisfied with the state of their current applications. They
are opening a new facility in another location and want to have the same Voice Self-Service applications
in this new location. They need the new location operational in four weeks. Cost is an issue. Since cost
and expediency are primary concerns, what would you suggest to add Voice Self-Service capacity to the
new location?
A.Add Avaya Voice Portal systems/ports in the new location.
B.Add Avaya Dialog Designer systems/ports in the new location.
C.Add Avaya Interactive Response systems/ports in the new location.
D.Add Avaya Interactive Response systems/ports to the primary location.
Answer:C

Avaya   132-S-708.1 examen   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.17 A healthcare company operates a mail order prescription business. Its contact center primarily takes
orders from existing and new customers. Upper management has decided not to implement an Avaya
Voice Self-Service solution, but use a competitor instead. The IT staff believes that once they implement
the new system, it will not operate as advertised. The IT staff asks you what they can do to ensure that
their application development time is not wasted in the event that they ultimately decide to migrate to
Avaya Voice Portal in the future. What is the most cost-effective advice you can give the IT staff?
A.Advise them to create their application using the competitor's proprietary tool set.
B.Advise them to create an application that exposes the weaknesses of the competitor platform.
C.Advise them to escalate the decision about the platform since it will be very difficult to convert later on.
D.Advise them to create their application in VoiceXML so that there will be portability to Avaya Voice
Portal.
Answer:D

Avaya   132-S-708.1 examen   132-S-708.1 examen

NO.18 A thriving mail order business has a busy contact center that takes orders from existing and new
customers. To process routine orders and reduce staffing costs, they have chosen to implement an Avaya
Voice Self-Service solution. They want a sophisticated seamless solution for routing calls to agents. They
want callers to be identified, serviced (provide routine information), and routed to an agent with minimal
input from the caller. Which two speech elements would be required to implement this solution? (Choose
two.)
A.Voice over IP (VoIP)
B.Text-to-Speech (TTS)
C.Speech Recognition (SR)
D.Speech Application Builder (SAB)
Answer:B C

Avaya   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

NO.19 A customer currently has one contact center in Los Angeles using CONVERSANT? They use TDM
and DTMF. They are dissatisfied with the state of their current applications. They want to use speech
applications to simplify classification and routing of customer calls. They also expect a much higher
resolution of calls within their Voice Self-Service environment. The customer has rigid IT standards. The
only approved server hardware is Intel-based. Servers must only be purchased through the IT department.
Which two Voice Self-Service components would closely align with the customer's requirements?
(Choose two.)
A.IVR Designer
B.Avaya Voice Portal
C.Avaya Dialog Designer
D.Avaya Interactive Response
Answer:B C

Avaya   certification 132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1 examen

NO.20 A thriving mail order business has a busy contact center that takes orders from existing and new
customers. This business has chosen to implement an Avaya Voice Self-Service solution to process
routine orders to reduce the staffing costs. They would like to implement a more sophisticated solution for
routing calls to agents, and make it seamless. They want callers to be identified, serviced, and if needed,
routed to an agent with minimal input from the caller. Which product integrates with Avaya Voice
Self-Service solutions to meet this need?
A.IBM WebSphere
B.Avaya Proactive Contact
C.Avaya Interaction Center
D.Call Management System
Answer:C

Avaya   132-S-708.1   certification 132-S-708.1   132-S-708.1

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-815
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Specialist Modular Messaging with Avaya Message Store Implement and Support Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 118 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true about installing a Modular Messaging with the Message Storage Server
(MSS) into the Corporate Windows Domain?
A. The only step required is to select "Join the Corporate Windows Domain" in the Data Collection
Too (DCT).
B. The MSS TCP/IP networking form must be configured with the appropriate Corporate Windows
Domain values.
C. "Join the Corporate Windows Domain" must be selected in the Data Collection Tool (DCT) and
on the Message Storage Server Windows Domain Setup administration form.
D. "Join the Corporate Windows Domain" is done manually on the MAS after the configuration
wizard is run, and then done manually on the MSS using the Windows Domain Setup form.
Answer: C

Avaya   132-S-815   132-S-815 examen   certification 132-S-815

NO.2 .Before requesting a license for a newly installed Modular Messaging system, which information is
required from the on-site installer?
A. Voice Mail Domain Name
B. Voice Mail Domain Identifier (aka VMD ID or Host ID)
C. IP addresses of all servers in the Voice Mail Domain
D. Local Administration Account names and passwords for all Messaging Application Servers
(MASs)
Answer: B

Avaya examen   132-S-815 examen   132-S-815

NO.3 .In what task will the Avaya Messaging Application Server (MAS) Port Monitor be useful?
A. verifying that the MAS is able to communicate over IP ports to the MSS
B. determining the digits dialed by an outbound call from the MAS's telephony port
C. verifying that a test call arrives on a telephony port of the MAS that you want to test
D. determining whether communication originating from the MAS's IP port employs encryption
Answer: C

Avaya examen   132-S-815   132-S-815   certification 132-S-815   132-S-815

NO.4 .Which two statements are true about anti-virus software on Modular Messaging with a Message
Storage Server (MSS)? (Choose two.)
A. The MSS already has its own anti-virus software.
B. Anti-virus software should not be configured to perform scans each time a file is accessed.
C. Once anti-virus software has been installed the Modular Messaging system will update it
automatically.
D. Avaya recommends that the customer install anti-virus software on each Avaya Messaging
Application Server (MAS) and any Supplementary Server.
Answer: B,D

Avaya   132-S-815 examen   132-S-815

NO.5 .Which two options are presented after starting the Data Collection Tool (DCT)? (Choose two.)
A. create a new file
B. analyze existing system
C. deploy new configuration
D. delete current configuration
Answer: A,B

Avaya   132-S-815   certification 132-S-815

NO.6 Which two statements about domain names are true for Modular Messaging? (Choose two.)
A. All domain names must be unique.
B. The Voice Mail Domain (VMD) is identical to the Windows Domain Name.
C. The Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and Voice Mail Domain (VMD) names must be
alphanumeric.
D. The private Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) for the Message Application Server (MAS) is
used only on the private network.
Answer: A,D

Avaya examen   certification 132-S-815   certification 132-S-815   132-S-815 examen

NO.7 .Before going to a customer site to begin installing a Modular Messaging R3.1 system, which three
items should be obtained from support.avaya.com? (Choose three.)
A. Configuration Notes
B. System planning form
C. Outlook Client software
D. Customer account information
E. Supplementary Server software
Answer: A,B,C

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-815   132-S-815   132-S-815

NO.8 .The customer has an existing Modular Messaging (MM) system with a Message Storage System
(MSS), which was installed with MM release 1.1. They are upgrading to MM 3.0 and adding an
Avaya Messaging Application Server (MAS) to provide more port capacity. The customer wants to
retain their existing MAS. They have T1 Dialogic boards. They currently have Aria and Audix TUIs
implemented for their subscribers.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. They must upgrade all dialogic boards.
B. They must upgrade all MASs to S3500 servers.
C. They must consider impact of TUIs on port capacity.
D. The new MAS will have only two slots for port boards.
Answer: C,D

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-815   certification 132-S-815   132-S-815

NO.9 .Which two actions should be performed to upgrade a customer's system from Modular Messaging
Release R3.0 to R3.1, using the existing servers for the Message Storage erver (MSS) and the
Message Application Server (MASs). (Choose two.)
A. Uninstall and re-installRealSpeak software on the MASs
B. Upgrade Dialogic drives if Dialogic port boards are in the MAS
C. Install MAS boot image (4 DVDs) to upgrade to Microsoft Windows 2003 Server
D. Install the Pre-upgrade and Backup Verification tool to check the health of the Release 3.0
system
Answer: A,B

Avaya   132-S-815 examen   132-S-815   132-S-815 examen   132-S-815

NO.10 .According to Avaya documentation, which step must be taken to connect the cables supplied with
a digital set emulation board to the PBX?
A. Connect the board using the provided RJ-48C (Ethernet) cable.
B. Connect the installed boards to one end of a standard RJ-11 tip/ring cable.
C. Connect the board using the provided PBX station interface D/82JCT-U cable.
D. Connect the male end of the provided CT bus cable to the top of each port board.
Answer: C

Avaya   132-S-815   132-S-815 examen   132-S-815 examen

NO.11 .Before beginning to configure and test the port boards in the Avaya Messaging Application Server
(MAS), a user must first obtain the proper configuration note for the particular PBX and integration.
Where can the proper configuration note be found?
A. Help screens
B. Installation Guide
C. MAS documentation CD
D. http:\\support.avaya.com
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-815   132-S-815   132-S-815

NO.12 .Which IP address is acceptable for use on the private network for an installation of Modular
Messaging R3.x with the Avaya Message Storage Server (MSS)?
A. 10.255.255.255
B. 168.192.1.250
C. 172.31.1.245
D. 183.81.168.1
Answer: C

Avaya   132-S-815   132-S-815   132-S-815   certification 132-S-815

NO.13 .Which three are manual steps required to upgrade from Modular Messaging pre-3.0 to Modular
Messaging 3.x when the solution uses the Avaya Message Storage Server (MSS)? (Choose
three.)
A. using the backup verification tool to ensure the quality of the backup
B. running the Data Collection Tool (DCT) on a Message Application Server (MAS)
C. performing a backup of the MSS while the MSS is providing messaging services
D. performing a backup of the MSS while the MSS messaging services have been stopped
E. performing a backup of the Message Application Server (MAS) onto the MAS's DVD drive.
Answer: A,B,D

Avaya   132-S-815 examen   132-S-815 examen   132-S-815

NO.14 To conduct a multiple Avaya Message Application Server (MAS) installation, where in the Voice
Mail Domain must the Avaya Mailbox Monitor and the Message Waiting Indicator (MWI) services
be activated?
A. in the first MAS
B. in different MASs
C. on the same MAS
D. in at least two MASs
Answer: C

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-815   certification 132-S-815   132-S-815 examen   132-S-815 examen   132-S-815

NO.15 .Which three are manual steps required to upgrade Message Networking from Release 2.0 to
Release 3.1? (Choose three.)
A. Perform an attended system backup.
B. Run the pre-upgrade tool to help plan for the upgrade.
C. Remove the switch integration software from the MN 2.0 system.
D. Use the backup verification tool to ensure the quality of the backup.
E. Insert the MN 3.1 DVD and run Software Update on the 2.0 system.
Answer: A,B,D

certification Avaya   132-S-815   certification 132-S-815   132-S-815

NO.16 .What specific documentation is needed for an installer to correctly integrate a Message
Networking Server with a PBX? (Choose two.)
A. completed Modular Messaging planning form
B. completed Message Networking planning form
C. Avaya Communication Manager Networking Guide
D. Switch Connections Supported for Message Networking
Answer: B,D

Avaya examen   132-S-815   certification 132-S-815   132-S-815   132-S-815

NO.17 .In an R3.1 Modular Messaging Message Storage Server (MM MSS), in what location can a user
determine if Messaging is running and also the state of Internet Messaging and Enhanced List
Application Software?
A. Server Information > Server Status
B. Reports > System Evaluation Reports
C. This information is available from several screens.
D. System Control and System Status > System Monitor
Answer: A

certification Avaya   132-S-815   certification 132-S-815   132-S-815

NO.18 .Which is used to find port statistics in a Modular Messaging (MM) system?
A. Reporting Tool
B. Port Monitor Tool
C. Subscriber Options
D. Operational History Viewer
Answer: A

certification Avaya   132-S-815   certification 132-S-815   certification 132-S-815

NO.19 .Which action must be taken on an Message Storage Server (MSS) to implement additional
administrator logins?
A. Buy additional administrator seats from Avaya.
B. Create custom roles to assign to the administrator logins.
C. Set up an Authentication, Authorization and Accounting (AAA) server to authenticate the
administrator logins.
D. Configure the administrator account to authenticate locally or via an Authentication,
Authorization and Accounting (AAA) server.
Answer: D

Avaya   132-S-815 examen   132-S-815   132-S-815

NO.20 .Which three line cards are used with Modular Messaging? (Choose three.)
A. H.323
B. Analog
C. DLC-16
D. T1/E1-QSIG
E. Set Emulation
Answer: B,D,E

certification Avaya   132-S-815   132-S-815 examen

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Code d'Examen: 132-S-911
Nom d'Examen: Avaya (Specialist IP Telephony Implement and Support Elective Exam)
Questions et réponses: 199 Q&As

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NO.1 .You have a Communication Manager R3 1 phone system with all IP phones and there is no dial
tone. You verify that all of the hardware is working properly. Which two steps can you take to
identify the cause of the problem? (Choose two.)
A. Verify that the MedPro board has the correct IP settings
B. Set a static IP address on you laptop and see if you can ping the TN799
C. Set a static IP address on your laptop and see if you can ping the TN2312
D. Set a static IP address on your laptop and see if you can ping the TN2302 or TN2602
Answer: C

certification Avaya   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911   certification 132-S-911

NO.2 .You have an S8720 Server optioned for Software Duplication. Which Ethernet port is the
Duplication Link assigned to?
A. Ethernet 1
B. Ethernet 2
C. Ethernet 3
D. Ethernet 4
Answer: A

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-911   132-S-911   132-S-911   132-S-911 examen

NO.3 .You are migrating from a Definity server to an S8500/S87XX server. Where is the IPSI board
located?
A. It is always placed into slot number 1.
B. The location depends on which media server is used.
C. It can be slotted into any available media gateway slot.
D. The location depends on which media gateway is used.
Answer: C

certification Avaya   132-S-911   132-S-911

NO.4 .A customer has purchased 20 Avaya IP telephones over a period of three years. Knowing that the
IEEE 802.3af standard has been ratified, the customer decided to purchase a C360-PWR switch
to provide in-line power to the IP telephones. However, only 15 of the phones power up when they
are connected to the C360-PWR. Upon investigation you discover the five phones which would not
receive power from C360-PWR are Generation 1 models that are not 802.3af compliant. Which
three methods should you use to power these phones? (Choose three.)
A. 356A adapter
B. Individual power brick
C. 1152A1 mid-span unit with adapter
D. Other vendor 802.3af compliant device
E. IP phone 4600 Ethernet 30A base switch
Answer: A,B,D

certification Avaya   132-S-911   certification 132-S-911   132-S-911

NO.5 .What color is the LED when a TN circuit pack is executing a test?
A. Red
B. Green
C. Yellow
D. Amber
Answer: B

Avaya examen   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911

NO.6 .Which is a characteristic of a global VLAN ID?
A. Must have at least five digits
B. Can vary from one device to another
C. Supports QoS between multi-vendor WAN/LANs
D. Remains consistent across all VLAN tagging schemes
Answer: C

certification Avaya   certification 132-S-911   certification 132-S-911   certification 132-S-911

NO.7 .Which Communication Manager (CM) feature utilizes PSTN connectivity when IP WAN bandwidth
limit has been reached?
A. Inter-Gateway Alternate Routing
B. Intra-Gigabit Analytical Resource
C. Intelligent Global Access Routing
D. Intelligent Gatekeeper Associated Routes

NO.8 Which two Avaya Communication Manager commands display the VoIP statistics of a specific
extension active on call? (Choose two.)
A. Status station
B. Display station
C. List trace station
D. Display trace station
Answer: B

Avaya   certification 132-S-911   132-S-911

NO.9 .When configuring site specific option number (SSON) in DHCP server for an Avaya IP telephone,
"MCIPADD" is the address of the H.323 gatekeeper's IP address. In an Avaya IP telephony
solution, which component acts as the H.323 gatekeeper?
A. IPSI
B. S87xx Server
C. CLANs or S8300 Server
D. Router in the data network
Answer: B

Avaya examen   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911   132-S-911 examen

NO.10 Within a single Avaya Communication Manager 4.0, how can you have conflicting four digit
extensions for separate locations in a four digit plan?
A. You insert an additional digit on the incoming trunk group form
B. You enter a different UDP code on the dial plan analysis form and take it off in the incoming
trunk group
C. You enter an extra digit on the dial-plan analysis and delete a digit in the routing pattern
D. You enter X where x is the location number on the uniform dial plan and prefix an additional first
digit; the changed number matches in AAR analysis and goes to a pattern
Answer: C

Avaya   132-S-911   certification 132-S-911

NO.11 .In an IP Connect configuration, with hardware duplication, a customer has implemented
separation of the control network. What Ethernet port should be assigned to this control network?
A. Ethernet 0
B. Ethernet 1
C. Ethernet 2
D. Ethernet 3

NO.12 .Which two parameters are found in an H.323 Signaling Group form? (Choose two.)
A. QoS parameters
B. A default gateway
C. The far-end network region
D. A TN799 C-LAN for call signaling
Answer: B,C

Avaya   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911 examen   132-S-911

NO.13 .An Avaya IP phone is connected over a WAN link to the main office where the TN799 CLAN and
TN2302 IP Media Processor are located. The Avaya IP phone is registered properly on the CLAN.
A DCP phone calls the Avaya IP phone and the call is answered. The audio quality is poor in both
directions, but the call stays up until one of the users disconnects. Which two conditions cause this
audio quality problem? (Choose two.)
A. Insufficient IP media processor resources
B. Use of the G.711 codec to transmit audio over the WAN link
C. Implementing Weighted Fair Queuing (WFQ) on the edge router
D. Intermittent connectivity between the Avaya IP phone and the CLAN
Answer: A,B

certification Avaya   132-S-911 examen   certification 132-S-911   132-S-911 examen   certification 132-S-911

NO.14 .A G450 Media Gateway can be controlled directly from an Avaya Server S8500C. What is the
associated license file functionality that needs to be included?
A. Processor Ethernet (PE)
B. PNC Duplication
C. Port Network Support
D. Processor and System MSP

NO.15 Prior to putting the system into service, you test the Local Survivable Processor (LSP) failover
capability on the G700 Media Gateway with an S8300 Server. If you unplug the network
connection to the G700 Media Gateway the G700 Media Gateway does not search for a
secondary CLAN or any other LSP. What should you do to ensure that LSP failover has been
properly configured? (Choose two.)
A. You should refresh the IP address
B. You should check the controller IP address
C. You should check the LSP transition points
D. You should run session mgc to bring up the Show Call Control Status screen
Answer: A,B

Avaya   132-S-911   certification 132-S-911

NO.16 .In an S87xx MultiConnect, Port Network 18 has no IPSI. Which command will show the IPSI that
is in control of that Port Network?
A. Status fiber 18
B. List ipserver-interface
C. Status port-network 18
D. Status sys-link 18a0101 current
Answer: C

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NO.17 .In an Enterprise Survivable Server (ESS) scenario, how do you save translations to your ESS
server?
A. Savetrans
B. Savetrans all
C. Save ESS settings
D. Savetrans cluster ESS
Answer: A

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NO.18 .A company purchases the right to use Avaya IP Softphone for 100 stations. The users complain
that the call center buttons (AUX, After-Call, Login, and Logout) programmed on their stations no
longer work as expected. What is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. TCP/UDP port blockage in the corporate WAN
B. Improper administration of the stations in the PBX
C. Users trying to use the application for non-supported functions
D. Improper installation of the Avaya IP Softphone application on the users' PCs
Answer: B

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NO.19 .Your customer is unable to light message waiting lights at a small branch office using a shared
Intuity voice mail system on a QSIG network running DCS. What is the first command you should
execute?
A. list ip-interfaces
B. list media-gateway
C. display-ip-network-region <x>
D. status station <station number>
Answer: C

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NO.20 .DHCP option codes 128 to 254 are reserved for site-specific options. A single number out of this
range is commonly utilized by vendors to configure their Avaya IP phones via DHCP (Option 176).
Which additional option code supports vendor-specific options?
A. 3
B. 23
C. 43
D. 63
Answer: B

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NO.21 .Your customer asks you to verify the current subnet mask assigned to a remote Avaya G700
Media Gateway P330 stack management interface. Which command should you use to obtain this
information?
A. Session stack
B. Show interface
C. Show interface mgp
D. Show interface stack manager
Answer: A

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NO.22 .A customer is using Avaya 4600 Series IP Telephones on an Avaya S87xx Server using several
TN799DP (CLAN) and TN2302 (Medpro) cards. Telephones located at a remote site are unable to
register with the CLAN. The CLAN can ping and be pinged. Which two commands or
troubleshooting methods can identify the problem? (Choose two.)
A. List sys-link
B. Status station
C. Listtrace ras station
D. Use a network sniffer between the phone and the network
Answer: B,C

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NO.23 Which two statements about VoIP Monitoring Manager are true? (Choose two.)
A. VoIP Monitoring Manager is a GUI-based tool that can chart historical graphs of audio
performance on VoIP endpoints
B. VoIP Monitoring Manager can be used to troubleshoot VoIP endpoints registration problems
and call signaling problems
C. the reporting interval of VoIP Monitoring Manager can be varied depending on the required
granularity of the performance statistics
D. VoIP Monitoring Manager is a text-based tool that has the look and feel of a CLI and can be
embedded into Cajun switches as an add-on feature
Answer: B

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NO.24 .Which two statements are true about DHCP? (Choose two.)
A. A DHCP server is required to configure all Avaya IP telephones
B. A DHCP server can be used to send the DNS server address to the client
C. One DHCP server is required for each subnet containing clients that require the service
D. A DHCP server is used to send an IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway address to
the client
Answer: A,C

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NO.25 .You are working with the powerful concept of a network region section. Which three parameters
can be set on the IP network region screen? (Choose three.)
A. H.323 endpoint
B. SIP enabled endpoints
C. hairpinning and shuffling
D. UDP port range parameters
E. QoS parameters such as DiffServ/TOS and 802.1p/Q
Answer: B,C,D

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