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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-048
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 10g R2: Administering RAC)
Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

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NO.1 Your company has certain standard practices for technology and you are configuring ASM disk
groups for your four-node RAC cluster. The company guidelines suggest that there is one disk
group for the flash recovery area that is shared by all databases and a separate disk group for the
database area of all databases. Which three exceptions exist that may require you to create
additional disk groups? (Choose three.)
A.The retention policy for backups are different for different databases.
B.There are large nonpartitioned tables accessed frequently using indexes.
C.The disk farm has different disk models with different characteristics and ages.
D.Some databases operate in ARCHIVELOGMODE and others in NOARCHIVELOGMODE.
E.Some database instances are shut down every night while others are always running.
F.Applications using the databases have different Service-Level Agreements for response time and
throughput.
G.There are partitioned tables where the older partitions are in read-only tablespaces and seldom
accessed, but the more recent partitions are frequently accessed.
Correct:C F G

Oracle   1Z0-048   certification 1Z0-048   1Z0-048   1Z0-048

NO.2 You have a well-tuned, non-RAC single instance Oracle database with several services, all of
which perform perfectly. You plan to migrate the database to RAC in the next two weeks and all file
systems would be shared using Oracle Cluster File System. After the migration, you want to
perform a test to monitor RAC-specific tuning issues that would not have occurred on a non-RAC
database. Which six areas would you monitor to determine whether there are RAC-specific
performance problems after migration? (Choose six.)
A.Interconnect latency
B.Instance recovery time
C.Services with applications that use external tables
D.Services with applications that truncate large tables
E.Services with applications using local context variables
F.Services with query-intensive applications relying on full table scans
G.Services with insert-intensive applications that use Oracle sequences for index keys
H.Services with applications that have occasional queries, using index access on modestly sized tables
I.Services with insert-intensive applications that generate their own keys without Oracle sequences
Correct:A B D F G I

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NO.3 Which optional parameter of the DESCRIPTION clause of a TNS entry can you use to randomize
the access to available listeners?
A.FAILOVER
B.LOAD_BALANCE
C.SOURCE_ROUTE
D.TYPE_OF_SERVICE
Correct:B

Oracle   1Z0-048   certification 1Z0-048   1Z0-048   1Z0-048

NO.4 You are about to build a new Oracle Clusterware-based cluster and you want to make the
installation process as smooth as possible. You decide to use the Cluster Verification Utility
(CLUVFY) to check whether or not your system administrator has set up the hardware and system
software correctly. Which two statements about CLUVFY are true? (Choose two.)
A.You can run CLUVFY only from a privileged operating system account.
B.You can run CLUVFY directly from the Oracle Clusterware distribution media.
C.CLUVFY cannot be used until the Oracle Clusterware is installed successfully.
D.After the Oracle Clusterware installation, you can run CLUVFY from the Oracle Home that holds the
CRS binaries.
E.You have to install CLUVFY on all cluster nodes in order to use CLUVFY on other nodes than the one
from which you perform the installation.
F.To use CLUVFY during the Oracle Clusterware installation, you have to download CLUVFY from the
Oracle Technology Network (OTN) Web site and install it before you can use it.
Correct:B D

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NO.5 Which three storage types are suitable as a flash recovery area for an Oracle 10g RAC database?
(Choose three.)
A.Raw volume
B.ASM disk group
C.Local file system
D.Cluster file system
E.Shared NFS directory
Correct:B D E

Oracle   1Z0-048   certification 1Z0-048   1Z0-048   1Z0-048

NO.6 Your company has a combination of high availability and scalability requirements that need to
be addressed, and RAC has been discussed as a solution. There are a mix of "off-the-shelf"
software products and homegrown applications currently in use in your environment that run on
single-instance Oracle databases. You have been asked by the IT director to provide an impact
analysis report to help assess the impact on applications when migrating to RAC. Which three are
among the areas that should be examined for performance impact and application functionality
impact or for both? (Choose three.)
A.applications that use large parallel full table scans
B.applications that truncate tables in a data warehouse process
C.three-tier applications that use application global context variables
D.client/server type applications that use application local context variables
E.applications that access small tables using the same index occasionally
F.applications that use SQL profiles created by the ATO optimizer in the SQL Tuning Advisor
Correct:A B C

Oracle   1Z0-048   certification 1Z0-048   1Z0-048   1Z0-048

NO.7 Which two initialization parameters must be set to start up an ASM instance in a RAC
environment? (Choose two.)
A.INSTANCE_TYPE
B.DB_UNIQUE_NAME
C.ASM_DISKSTRING
D.ASM_DISKGROUPS
E.ASM_POWER_LIMIT
F.CLUSTER_DATABASE
Correct:A F

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NO.8 Several steps must be followed to successfully add a new node to your cluster database.
Assuming that a UNIX platform is used, which of the three steps below are correct? (Choose
three.)
A.Add instances using OUI.
B.Reconfigure listeners for the new node with netca.
C.Configure the OS and hardware for the new node.
D.Add the node to the cluster using the addnode.sh script run from ORA_CRS_HOME.
E.Add the RAC software to the new node using addnode.sh from ORA_CRS_HOME.
Correct:B C D

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NO.9 You decide to implement a Data Guard configuration to support a disaster recovery plan for
your RAC database. Your primary database has all shared files and the flash recovery area is
stored on ASM disk groups. Which three options exist for storing the data guard broker
configuration files at the primary location? (Choose three.)
A.can be in any shared ASM disk group
B.can be stored on shared Raw Devices
C.must be stored on Oracle Cluster File System if a cluster file system is used
D.may be stored on any supported cluster file system if a cluster file system is used
E.must be in the same shared ASM disk group as the database data files if the broker configuration files
are stored in ASM disk groups
F.must be in the same shared ASM disk group as the Flash Recovery Area if the broker configuration files
are stored in ASM disk groups.
Correct:A B D

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NO.10 You have attended a user group presentation on RAC and based on what you have learned you
feel that your company would benefit from having the RAC option to meet its Oracle database
requirements in several ways. Your manager does not know much about RAC and asks you to
create a presentation to the team explaining RAC, and whether it should be implemented in your
installation. Which three statements explain the benefits and implications of RAC? (Choose three.)
A.RAC alone would not help protect from human errors.
B.RAC would increase availability in the event of data failures.
C.RAC would increase availability in the event of a network failure.
D.RAC alone would increase availability when doing release upgrades.
E.RAC would increase scalability for all application workloads in all cases.
F.RAC would increase availability in the event of node and instance failures.
G.RAC used in conjunction with parallel execution may provide speedup of DSS queries.
H.RAC used in conjunction with parallel execution may provide for speedup of OLTP workload processes.
Correct:A F G

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NO.11 After migrating from a 10g R1 cluster to 10g R2, you decide to multiplex your voting disk.
Which are the two ways in which you can accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A.You should not use symbolic links.
B.You can add additional voting disks online.
C.You must add additional voting disks offline.
D.You may use the VIPCA utility to add new voting disks.
E.You may use the command: crsctl add css votedisk
Correct:B E

Oracle   1Z0-048   certification 1Z0-048   1Z0-048   1Z0-048

NO.12 Oracle Cluster Registry (OCR) can be recovered on a UNIX platform using which two
commands? (Choose two.)
A.ocrconfig -import /u01/logical_ocr/yesterday.ocr where yesterday.ocr is an automatically generated
OCR backup
B.ocrconfig -import /u01/logical_ocr/yesterday.ocr_exp where yesterday.ocr_exp is a logical backup
created using the ocrconfig -export command
C.cp /app/oracle/product/10.1.0/crs_1/cdata/dbclust01/day.ocr /ocfs/OCR/crs.dbf where
/ocfs/OCR/crs.dbf is the cluster registry file
D.ocrconfig -restore /app/oracle/product/10.1.0/crs_1/cdata/dbclust01/day.ocr where day.ocr is an
automatically generated OCR backup
Correct:B D

Oracle   1Z0-048   certification 1Z0-048   1Z0-048   1Z0-048

NO.13 Which initialization parameter would you use for each RAC instance to make sure that each
listener on each RAC node is aware of the load of all the others?
A.LOCAL_LISTENER
B.REMOTE_LISTENER
C.REMOTE_DEPENDENCIES_MODE
D.PREFER_LEAST_LOADED_NODE_
Correct:B

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NO.14 You are working as a DBA in a RAC environment that is available for testing. The RAC
environment has all the database files stored in the OCFS file system. You plan to install ASM and
move all the database files to ASM to achieve better performance. During the installation, you
selected redundancy level as normal for the disk group being added. What is the reason for
selecting this redundancy level?
A.You want to use hardware mirroring.
B.You do not want to have any mirroring in the disk group.
C.You have two failure groups defined, so you want to use two-way mirroring.
D.You have three failure groups defined, so you want to use three-way mirroring.
Correct:C

Oracle   1Z0-048   certification 1Z0-048   1Z0-048   1Z0-048

NO.15 View the Exhibit, which displays the cluster database performance page after the same
workload has been executed three times on your cluster without varying any non-Oracle
workloads on the cluster. What are the two ways by which you can tell that the corresponding
application was better tuned during the second and third execution? (Choose two.)
A.There is less paging each time.
B.The run queue length is going down each time.
C.It takes less time to execute the workload each time.
D.The number of transactions per second is getting higher each time.
E.The database throughput graphic is below the red dashed line during the last execution.
Correct:C D

Oracle   1Z0-048   certification 1Z0-048   1Z0-048   1Z0-048

NO.16 Which three statements regarding backup of the voting disk are true? (Choose three.)
A.On UNIX platforms, the voting disk can be backed up with the dd command.
B.A backup of the voting disk should be taken whenever an RMAN catalog reset is done.
C.A backup of the voting disk should be taken whenever a new node is added to the cluster.
D.A backup of the voting disk should be taken whenever an existing node is removed from the cluster.
E.Whenever a voting disk backup is made, the Clusterware software should be stopped on all nodes in
the cluster.
Correct:A C D

Oracle   1Z0-048   certification 1Z0-048   1Z0-048   1Z0-048

NO.17 After a power failure, you noticed that one of your cluster database instances did not start
automatically, whereas all other instances came up successfully. What would you do to determine
the precise cause for the instance startup failure? (Choose three.)
A.Check the resource state by using the CRS_STAT command.
B.Check for OCR corruptions by using the OCRCHECK command.
C.Check the alert.log file that belongs to the instance that did not start.
D.Check the alert.log file that belongs to the Oracle Clusterware software.
E.Check if the Oracle Clusterware is functional by using the CRSCTL command.
F.Reboot the node where the failing instance resides to check if the problem is persistent.
G.Enable extra debugging in the Oracle Clusterware software by using the CRSCTL command.
Correct:A C D

Oracle   1Z0-048   certification 1Z0-048   1Z0-048   1Z0-048

NO.18 In a RAC environment, you see a steep increase for enq:HW - contention and gc current grant
wait events. What would you do to fix this issue?
A.Increase the cache size of sequences.
B.Reduce the time of transactions by committing more often.
C.Use larger uniform extent sizes for objects.
D.Reduce the number of updates causing locks on tables accessed by multiple instances.
Correct:C

Oracle   1Z0-048   certification 1Z0-048   1Z0-048   1Z0-048

NO.19 You are running a two-instance database with six redo log groups defined and decide to add a
third thread to support a third database instance on the third node of the cluster. Which three
commands would you issue to achieve this using command line administration? (Choose three.)
A.ALTER SYSTEM ENABLE THREAD 3;
B.ALTER DATABASE ENABLE THREAD 3;
C.ALTER SYSTEM ADD LOGFILE THREAD 3 GROUP 8;
D.ALTER SYSTEM ADD LOGFILE THREAD 3 GROUP 7;
E.ALTER DATABASE ADD LOGFILE THREAD 3 GROUP 7;
F.ALTER DATABASE ADD LOGFILE THREAD 3 GROUP 8;
Correct:B E F

Oracle   1Z0-048   certification 1Z0-048   1Z0-048   1Z0-048

NO.20 After the cluster database has been successfully created, several postinstallation tasks should
be completed. Identify three of them. (Choose three.)
A.Create the ASM instance.
B.Back up the root.sh script.
C.Initialize the cluster backup procedure.
D.Set up additional required user accounts.
E.Verify the Enterprise Manager/Oracle Cluster Registry configuration by running srvctl config database
-d db_name.
Correct:B D E

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-052
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g: Administrator I )
Questions et réponses: 188 Q&As

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NO.1 Note the functionalities of various background processes:
1. Perform recovery at instance startup.
2: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
3: Cleanup the database buffer cache when a process fails.
4: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
5: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
6: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
7: Record the checkpoint information in control file.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Checkpoint (CKPT): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor (SMON): 1, 6
C.Process Monitor (PMON): 4, 6, 7
D.Database Writer (DBWR): 1, 3, 4
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which two statements are true about Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area? (Choose two.)
A.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the shared pool.
B.Shared SQL Area will be allocated when a session starts.
C.Shared SQL Area will be allocated in the large pool always.
D.Private SQL Area will be allocated in the Program Global Area (PGA) always.
E.Shared SQL Area and Private SQL Area will be allocated in the PGA or large pool.
F.The number of Private SQL Area allocations is dependent on the OPEN_CURSORS parameter.
Answer: AF

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NO.3 Which two statements about the background process of the database writer are true? (Choose two.)
A.It is possible to have multiple database writers in an Oracle instance.
B.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a checkpoint occurs.
C.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files whenever a transaction commits.
D.It writes dirty buffers, if any, to data files before the log writer (LGWR) writes.
Answer: AB

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NO.4 View the Exhibit and identify the component marked with a question mark.
A.Checkpoint (CKPT)
B.Process Monitor (PMON)
C.Archiver Processes (ARCn)
D.Recoverer Process (RECO)
E.Memory Manager process (MMAN)
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z1-052   1Z1-052

NO.5 You have issued a SHUTDOWN ABORT command to bring down your database instance. Consider
the steps that will be performed later when you open the database:
1. SGA is allocated.
2: Control file is read.
3: Redo log files are read.
4: Instance recovery is started.
5: Background processes are started.
6: Data files are checked for consistency.
7: Server parameter file or the initialization parameter file is read.
Which option has the correct order in which these steps occur?
A.7, 1, 5, 2, 3, 6, 4
B.1, 2, 3,7, 5, 6, 4
C.7, 1, 4, 5, 2, 3, 6
D.1, 7, 5, 4, 2, 3, 6
Answer: A

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NO.6 Observe the information in the columns:
1. The SGAa. Text and parsed forms of all SQL statements
2: The cursor stateb. Run-time memory values for the SQL statement, such as rows retrieved
3: User-session datac. Security and resource usage information
4: The stack spaced. Local variables for the process
Which option has the correct match between the memory areas and their contents?
A.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
B.1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
C.1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
D.1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which is the correct description of a pinned buffer in the database buffer cache?
A.The buffer is currently being accessed.
B.The buffer is empty and has not been used.
C.The contents of the buffer have changed and must be flushed to the disk by the DBWn process.
D.The buffer is a candidate for immediate aging out and its contents are synchronized with the block
contents on the disk.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Your test database is running in NOARCHIVELOG mode. Which statement is true regarding the type of
backups that can be performed on the database?
A.You can perform online whole database backups.
B.You can perform offline whole database backups.
C.You cannot perform schema-level export/import operations.
D.You can perform the backup of only the SYSTEM tablespace when the database is open.
Answer: B

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NO.9 You have set Tablespace Full Metrics Threshold values for the USERS tablespace as follows:
Warning (%): 90
Critical (%): 95
Which background process is responsible for issuing alerts when the threshold is crossed?
A.System monitor (SMON)
B.Process monitor (PMON)
C.Memory manager process (MMAN)
D.Manageability Monitor process (MMON)
Answer: D

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NO.10 Examine the following statement that is used to modify the constraint on the SALES table:
SQL> ALTER TABLE SALES MODIFY CONSTRAINT pk DISABLE VALIDATE;
Which three statements are true regarding the above command? (Choose three.)
A.The constraint remains valid.
B.The index on the constraint is dropped.
C.It allows the loading of data into the table using SQL *Loader.
D.New data conforms to the constraint, but existing data is not checked.
E.It allows the data manipulation on the table using INSERT/UPDATE/DELETE SQL statements.
Answer: ABC

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NO.11 View the Exhibit and examine the privileges granted to the SL_REP user.
The EMP table is owned by the SCOTT user. The SL_REP user executes the following command:
SQL> GRANT SELECT ON scott.emp TO hr;
Which statement describes the outcome of the command?
A.The command executes successfully.
B.The command produces an error because the EMP table is owned by SCOTT.
C.The command produces an error because SL_REP has the GRANT ANY OBJECT PRIVILEGE without
ADMIN_OPTION.
D.The command produces an error because SL_REP does not have the SELECT privilege with
GRANT_OPTION on the EMP table.
Answer: A

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NO.12 The database instance is currently using SPFILE. View the Exhibit and examine the error that you
received while running the DB Structure Integrity check.
Given below are the steps to recover from the error in random order:
1. Shut down the instance, if not already done.
2: Copy one of the remaining control files to a new location.
3: Change the value of the CONTROL_FILES initialization parameter to correspond to the new location of
the control files.
4: Start up the database instance to the NOMOUNT stage.
5: Recover the database to the point of failure of the control file.

NO.13 Note the following functionalities of various background processes:
1. Record the checkpoint information in data file headers.
2: Perform recovery at instance startup.
3: Cleanup unused temporary segments.
4: Free the resources used by a user process when it fails.
5: Dynamically register database services with listeners.
6: Monitor sessions for idle session timeout.
Which option has the correct functionalities listed for a background process?
A.Archiver Process (ARCn): 1, 2, 5
B.System Monitor Process (SMON): 1, 4, 5
C.Process Monitor Process (PMON): 4, 5, 6
D.Database Writer Process (DBWn): 1, 3, 4
Answer: C

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NO.14 View the Exhibit and examine the attributes of an undo tablespace.
In an OLTP system, the user SCOTT has started a query on a large table in the peak transactional hour
that performs bulk inserts. The query runs for more than 15 minutes and then SCOTT receives the
following error:
ORA-01555: snapshot too old
What could be the reason for this error?
A.The query is unable to get a read-consistent image.
B.There is not enough space in Flash Recovery Area.
C.There is not enough free space in the flashback archive.
D.The query is unable to place data blocks in undo tablespace
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which two statements are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose two.)
A.All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
B.The AWR contains systemwide tracing and logging information.
C.The snapshots collected by the AWR are accessible through data dictionary views.
D.The snapshots collected by the AWR are used by self-tuning components in the database.
Answer: CD

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NO.16 These are points that describe the contents of different memory components:
1. Descriptive information or metadata about schema objects that are queried by using SQL statements
2: The run-time area for data manipulation language (DML) or data definition language (DDL) statements
3: Results of SQL queries and PL/SQL functions
4: Executable forms of SQL cursors, PL/SQL programs, and Java classes
5: The information necessary to reconstruct changes made to the database by a transaction
Which of these will be stored in the Shared Pool if the necessary configurations are done?
A.1 and 2
B.2 and 5
C.1, 3, and 4
D.3, 4, and 5
E.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: C

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NO.17 While observing the index statistics, you find that an index is highly fragmented, thereby resulting in
poor database performance. Which option would you use to reduce fragmentation without affecting the
users who are currently using the index?
A.Validate the index structure using the ANALYZE...INDEX command.
B.Rebuild the index using the ALTER INDEX..REBUILD ONLINE command.
C.Change the block space utilization parameters using the ALTER INDEX command.
D.Deallocate the unused space in the index using the ALTER INDEX..DEALLOCATE UNUSED command.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Open the database.
Identify the correct sequence of steps?
A.1, 2, 4, 3, 5, 6
B.2, 4, 3, 5, 6; 1 not required
C.4, 5, 6, 2, 3; 1 not required
D.5, 2, 3, 4; 1 and 6 not required
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z1-052   certification 1Z1-052   certification 1Z1-052   1Z1-052 examen
6. Note the following points describing various utilities in Oracle Database 11g:
1. It enables the high-speed transfer of data from one database to another.
2: It provides a complete solution for the backup, restoration, and recovery needs of the entire database.
3: It enables the loading of data from an external file into an Oracle database.
4: It provides a tape backup management for the Oracle ecosystem.
Which point describes Oracle Secure Backup?
A.1
B.2
C.3
D.4
E.1, 2, and 4
F.1, 2, 3, and 4
Answer: D

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NO.19 Identify the memory component from which memory may be allocated for:
1. Session memory for the shared server
2: Buffers for I/O slaves
3: Oracle Database Recovery Manager (RMAN) backup and restore operations
A.Large Pool
B.Redo Log Buffer
C.Database Buffer Cache
D.Program Global Area (PGA)
Answer: A

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NO.20 You have executed this command to change the size of the database buffer cache:
SQL> ALTER SYSTEM SET DB_CACHE_SIZE=2516582;
System altered.
To verify the change in size, you executed this command:
SQL> SHOW PARAMETER DB_CACHE_SIZE
NAME TYPE VALUE
------------------- ----------- ------------------
db_cache_size big integer 4194304
Why is the value set to 4194304 and not to 2516582?
A.because 4194304 is the granule size
B.because 4194304 is the standard block size
C.because 4194304 is the largest nonstandard block size defined in the database
D.because 4194304 is the total size of data already available in the database buffer cache
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-025
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Backup and Recovery)
Questions et réponses: 127 Q&As

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NO.1 Which statement is true when using the LogMiner utility?
A. The dictionary file is created in a directory as defined by UTL_FILE_DIR.
B. The CREATE DBMS LOGMSR command is used to build the dictionary file.
C. The dictionary file must be created after the log file analysis has completed.
D. The dictionary file is created as a backup if the data dictionary gets corrupted.
Answer: A

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NO.2 What are two purposes for using the recovery manager command CATALOG?
(Choose two)
A. Updating recovery catalog about rollback segment creation.
B. Updating recovery catalog about files created before RMAN.
C. Updating recovery catalog about operating systems backup.
D. Updating recovery catalog about files created before Oracle 8.
E. Updating recovery catalog about files that belong to a clone database.
Answer: B, C

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NO.3 What is the function of SMON in instance recovery?
A. It writes data to the archive log files.
B. It writes data to the online redo log files.
C. It frees resources held by user processes.
D. It synchronizes data file header and control files.
E. It roles forward by applying changes in the redo log.
F. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files.
Answer: E

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NO.4 What are two benefits of using RMAN with a catalog? (Choose two)
A. You can copy the redo-log history into the control file.
B. You can store scripts for backup and recovery operations.
C. You can register the target database with recovery catalog.
D. You can maintain records of backup and recovery operations.
E. You can synchronize the recovery catalog and the target database.
Answer: B, D

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NO.5 What is the function of ARCn in instance recovery?
A. It writes data to the archive log files.
B. It writes data to the online redo log files.
C. It frees resources held by user processes.
D. It synchronizes data file header and control files.
E. It writes dirty buffers from the buffer cache to the data files.
F. The archive process does not take part in instance recovery.
Answer: F

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NO.6 What are two causes of user errors? (Choose two)
A. Incorrect data is committed.
B. The operating system crashes.
C. There are insufficient privileges.
D. A table is accidentally truncated.
E. An application file is accidentally deleted.
F. The application program receives an addressing exception.
Answer: A, D

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NO.7 After rebuilding the recovery catalog by resynchronizing it with a copy of the backup
control file, you notice references to files that no longer exist. Which CREATE command
clause should you use to remove these references?
A. REMOVE
B. DELETE
C. UNCATALOG
D. CATALOG REMOVE
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-025   certification 1Z0-025   1Z0-025   certification 1Z0-025

NO.8 What is recommended initial size for a tablespace containing an RMAN recovery
catalog?
A. 10M
B. 20M
C. 100M
D. 10% of size of the target database.
Answer: A

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NO.9 What is the effect of issuing an ALTER DATABASE OPEN RESETLOGS
command on the primary database?
A. It invalidates the standby database.
B. The standby database can only be used in read-only mode.
C. A new standby database incarnation will automatically be started.
D. Once the archived log files are applied to the standby database, the redo log of the
standby database is reset.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which statement is true when using the DBVERIFYutility to detect corruptions in
an Oracle data block?
A. The utility can only be invoked on a data file that is online.
B. The utility can be used to verify the data files of a backup database.
C. The utility can assist in archiving log files when the database load is high.
D. The utility is internal to the database and so can impact database activates.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which command is used to allow RMAN to store a group of
commands in the recovery catalog?
A. ADD SCRIPT
B. CREATE SCRIPT
C. CREATE COMMAND
D. ADD BACKUP SCRIPT
Answer: B

Oracle   certification 1Z0-025   certification 1Z0-025   1Z0-025

NO.12 What is the effect of activating a standby database?
A. The primary database becomes a standby database.
B. The standby database becomes the primary database.
C. The primary database is deactivated to avoid conflicts.
D. The remaining redo-log files are copied from the primary database and applied.
Answer: B

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NO.13 What is the difference between using NOLOGGING operations in a single database
environment and a standby database environment?
A. There is no difference.
B. NOLOGGING operations are not available in release 0.1
C. The affected data file needs to be copied from the primary to the standby server.
D. NOLOGGING operations can be used on the standby database, but not on the primary
database.
Answer: C

Oracle   certification 1Z0-025   1Z0-025

NO.14 Which option is used in the parameter file to detect corruptions in an Oracle data
block?
A. DBVERIFY
B. DBMS_REPAIR
C. DB_BLOCK_CHECKING
D. VALIDITY_STRUCTURE
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-025   1Z0-025   1Z0-025 examen   1Z0-025 examen

NO.15 The command ALTER DATABASE CREATE STANDBY CONTROLFILE AS
standby.ct creates a standby control file. What needs to be done next to create a
standby database?
A. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby server.
B. The current redo-log files of the primary database need to be archived.
C. The standby database needs to be created using the standby control file.
D. The standby control file needs to be copied to the standby location on the primary
server.
Answer: B

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NO.16 Your daily report indicating which data files need to be backed up has been
misplaced. Which recovery manager command returns a report containing the files
in the USER_DATA tablespace that have not been backed up within the last three
days?
A. Rman> list backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
B. Rman>report backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
C.Rman>catalog backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
D. Rman>report need backup day 3 tablespace user_data;
Answer: D

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NO.17 What is the advantage of managed recovery mode?
A. During recovery, most common DBA errors can be avoided.
B. Prompts for applying the next available redo logs suppressed.
C. The primary database automatically ships archived redo log files to the standby server.
D. The standby database automatically applies the archived redo log when the files
become available.
Answer: D

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NO.18 The alert log can contain specific information about which database backup activity?
A. Placing datafiles in begin and end backup mode.
B. Placing tablespace in begin and end backup mode.
C. Changing the database backup mode from open to close.
D. Performing an operating system backup of the database files.
Answer: B

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NO.19 What is the correct procedure for multiplexing existing online redo logs?
A. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE GROUP command.
B. Issue the ALTER DATABASE. . . ADD LOGFILE MEMBER command.
C. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, and start up the database.
D. Shut down the database, copy the online redo-log, edit the REDO_LOG_FILES
parameter, and start up the database.
Answer: B

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NO.20 Which statement concerning archiving is true?
A. Archiving occurs during a checkpoint.
B. Archive logs can be written to multiple destinations.
C. Backups are not required when archiving is enabled.
D. Archiving copies the data files to their backup destinations.
E. Archiving can be enabled through recovery manager commands.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-501
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Java Certified Programmer)
Questions et réponses: 147 Q&As

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NO.1 public static void main (String args[] } (

NO.2 b = i < 10 | methodB (4);

NO.3 }

NO.4 )
What is the result?
A. The program prints "0"
B. The program prints "4"
C. The program prints "8"
D. The program prints "12"
E. The code does not complete.
Answer: B

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4. CORRECT TEXT
Given
1. Public class test (
2. Public static void main (String args[]) (
3. System.out.printIn (6

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-521
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle EBS R12.1 Order Management Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

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NO.1 Identify three true statements regarding freight and special charges. (Choose three)
A. Accrual is valid application method for modifier type of freight/special charges.
B. Basic pricing provides seeded freight and special charges type of modifier list.
C. You can define your own implementation-specific freight and special charges type of the modifier list.
D. You can use the range price breaks in creating modifiers for freight and special charges if you are using
only Basic pricing.
E. You can handle your own implementation-specific freight cost type or freight charges type codes for
use in modifiers for calculating freight and special charges.
F. When there are two equal modifiers with the highest precedence in an incompatibility level, the pricing
engine selects the modifier that provides the best benefit to the customer.
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.2 A key business user requirement to those users should be able to create sales order with distributor
keys trokes.
Which four setup options facilitate reduced data entry? (Choose four)
A. Defaulting rules
B. Transaction types
C. OM: invoice source
D. Processing constraints
E. Automatic attachments rules
F. OM: invoice transaction type
G. OM: enable Related items and manual substitutions
Answer: A,B,E,G

Oracle   1Z0-521 examen   1Z0-521   1Z0-521   1Z0-521

NO.3 An order has five lines with line status of staged/pick confirmed.
There is no record on the delivery tab in the shipping transaction from for this order.
What could be the possible solution?
A. Resolve the shipping exception.
B. Enable shipping privilege for the user.
C. Auto create delivery from the pick release form.
D. Auto create delivery from the delivery transaction form.
E. Auto create delivery from the shipping transaction form.
Answer: E

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NO.4 Identify three correct statements regarding the credit card encryption features? (Choose three)
A. Credit type is displayed as card brand.
B. The entire card information is stored at the order-line level.
C. Oracle payment is the single repository for multiple payment mode information access applications
modules.
D. Oracle payment is the single repository for multiple payment mode information access set up options.
E. The main idea behind the credit card security code and credit encryption is the make the credit card
and bank account information more centralized across the application and hence more secure.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.5 The item sub inventory report output contains _______. (Choose three)
A. EOQ
B. Source type
C. Locator control
D. Focus forecast
E. Fixed Lot multiple
F. Min-max information
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.6 ACME runs on the PTO fulfillment model.
All the business rules for configuring the model are set up using configurator, which makes it initial for
configuring PTO models.
Which statement is true?
A. A routing needs to be defined for PTO model.
B. Ship the model completely or the individual options.
C. Process the configured item to generate the work order.
D. After selecting the all options, the PTO model must be processed to get the configured.
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z0-521   1Z0-521

NO.7 Identify four functional setup steps that you would perform for ATP base on collection data. (Choose
four)
A. Define price lists
B. Define ATP rules
C. Setup stock locations
D. Setup transit lead time
E. Set up pricing modifiers
F. Select the ATP item attribute
G. Set up profile INV: capable to promise
Answer: B,D,F,G

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NO.8 Identify three correct statements about cascading attributes. (Choose three)
A. Enable Quit code OM_Header_to _line_Cascade.
B. Enable the key profile option OM: sales order form: Cascade Header changes to the line.
C. The cascading attributes feature is applicable for user interface, but not for an API (Process order)
D. When an update constraint is violated for a line attribute, the constraint will allows updates to other
lines.
E. There are only two modes (Automatic and Manual) for the profile OM: sales order form Cascade
Header change to line.
Answer: A,B,C

certification Oracle   1Z0-521   1Z0-521

NO.9 Which option identifies the requirements to ship confirm a sale order line?
A. The item attribute is shippable and shipping is an activity in the line work flow.
B. The item attribute is shippable, the line status is picked and shipping is an identity to the lines workflow.
C. The item attribute is shippable, the line status Booked, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
D. The item attribute is shippable, the line status Entered, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
E. The item attribute is shippable, the line status Shipped, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
F. The item attribute is shippable, the line status Awaiting, and shipping is an activity in the lines workflow.
Answer: B

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NO.10 Allowing a negative on hand balance is set at _________.
A. The Entity Level
B. The Subinventory Level
C. The operating Unit Level
D. The Item master inventory level
E. The Inventory organization level
Answer: E

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NO.11 Identify three correct statements regarding explicit and implicit acceptance. (Choose three)
A. Action attribute - Fulfillment Acceptance is necessary for implicit acceptance
B. An implicit acceptance request set ha two concurrent request:
1. Generate Pre-billing Acceptance program for pre-billing, implicit acceptance
2) Revenue contingency Analyzer for post-billing implicit acceptance.
C. Execution of concurrent program is not needed to perform post billing, implicit acceptance.
D. CSR can enter explicit acceptance via the order information portal or the order import correction.
E. An acceptance comment field is available on order header level (Order information/other tab) of the
sales order form.
F. An implicit acceptance deferral reason must be defined in AR with an event attribute using ship
confirmation date and expiration days.
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.12 Which three statements are about freight carriers? (Choose three)
A. Freight carriers can be defined only in transportation.
B. Freight carriers are used for customer shipments.
C. Freight carriers are specific to inventory organization.
D. General ledger accounts can not be associated with freight to collect associated costs.
E. Inter organization transfer uses an associated general ledger account to specify the freight.
F. Freight carriers are used for shipments to and from customers, suppliers, and internal organizations.
Answer: C,E,F

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NO.13 Which three statements are true regarding OM system parameters? (Choose three)
A. System parameters can be set with different values of different operating units.
B. System parameters can not be set with different values for different operating units.
C. The profile OM: credit sales person for freight on sales has been changed to an OM system.
D. The system parameter OM Employee for self service order has been changed to an OM system
parameter with the same name.
E. The system parameter name OM employee for self service order in single OM system parameter which
ha not changed to an OM profile.
F. The profile OM employee for self service order is the only OM responsibility level profile, which has
been changed to an OM system parameter with a new name requestor for drop ship order created by
external users.
Answer: A,C,F

Oracle   certification 1Z0-521   1Z0-521   1Z0-521   1Z0-521

NO.14 The seeded OM workflow contains a number of item types. Identify five valid item types? (Choose five)
A. Ship Only
B. Order Only
C. OM Standard
D. Order Header
E. OM price Only
F. Return for Credit
G. OM change Order
H. OM blanket Header
Answer: B,C,D,G,H

Oracle   1Z0-521   1Z0-521

NO.15 ACME has offices in various countries and its customers and supports are based around the globe.
Given that the addresses are formatted in each country, how would you setup the system to handle this
situation?
A. Ser up the address as a context-sensitive key Flexfield.
B. Ser up the address as a free format segmented value set.
C. Ser up the address as a context-sensitive descriptive field
D. Ser up the address as a dependent value set country-specific segments.
Answer: C

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Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Database 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 68 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two statements are true regarding the usage of tools in administering an Oracle database?
(Choose two.)
A. Oracle Net Manager: configure a new or existing listener
B. Data Pump: transfer of data from one database to another
C. SQL*Loader: load data horn an Oracle database to an external file
D. Database Upgrade Assistant: upgradeonly single-instance databases
E. Database configuration Assistant (DBCA): create new database userin an existing database
Answer: A, B

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NO.2 View the exhibit.
Which actions would be performed and in what sequence by clicking the Startup button?
1) Control file is read.
2) Memory is allocated.
3) Background processes are started.
4) Initialization parameter file is read.

NO.3 The DBA of your database informs you that the Oracle instance has started. What does this imply?
A. Users can access the data in the database.
B. Only the SGA has been allocated for the database.
C. Only the background and user processes are running.
D. Memory areas have been allocated and background processes have been started.
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-514   certification 1Z0-514

NO.4 Redo log files and data files are opened.
A. 2, 3, 1
B. 4, 1, 5
C. 1, 5, 4, 2
D. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5
E. 3, 2, 4, 1, 5
Answer: D

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5.Which two statements are true regarding consistent backups? (Choose two)
A. Database can be opened immediately after the restore operation.
B. Database can be opened only after the restore and recovery operations.
C. Consistent backups can be taken only when the instance is running and the database is closed.
D. Consistent backups can be taken only when the instance is shut clown and the database is closed.
E. Consistent backup are taken before the changes in the online redo log files haw been applied to the
data files.
Answer: A, D

Oracle   certification 1Z0-514   1Z0-514   1Z0-514

NO.5 You issue the following command as a DBA: SQL>SHUTDOWN
What would be the outcome of the above command?
A. It causes the instance to abort.
B. It waits for all sessions to disconnect.
C. It rolls back the current transactions and disconnects a/I sessions.
D. It waits for the current transaction in each session to complete before disconnecting the sessions.
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: C-TFIN52-05
Nom d'Examen: SAP (SAP Certified Solution Consultant Financials - Financial Accounting with SAP ERP 2005)
Questions et réponses: 299 Q&As

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NO.1 When you create asset master records this data is automatically adopted from the
asset class you
specify
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

SAP examen   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05

NO.2 Asset class is a selection criterion in all standard reports in FI-AA
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

certification SAP   C-TFIN52-05   certification C-TFIN52-05

NO.3 Profit and Loss using the Period Accounting and Cost of Sales Accounting:
A. The operating result can be different.
B. In Cost of Sales accounting, the output of a period and the total cost of this period are
summarized
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
E. In period accounting the sales revenue for a period and sales costs of the period are
summarized.
Answer: D

SAP   C-TFIN52-05 examen   certification C-TFIN52-05

NO.4 Payment Medium Workbench. (Choose Three)
A. New format can be created with little programming experience.
B. PMW facilitates uniformity.
C. Before PMW it is easy to maintain the program used in payment media.
D. PMW facilitates for select vendor open items during automatic payment run
E. In PMW format can easily be changed with making modification.
Answer: A,B,E

SAP examen   C-TFIN52-05   certification C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05 examen

NO.5 Chart of depreciation is a catalog of country specific depreciation areas structured
according to various
business aspects
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

SAP examen   certification C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05   certification C-TFIN52-05

NO.6 You define number assignment as either internal or external
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

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NO.7 Several charts of depreciation can also be assigned to an asset class
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

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NO.8 Chart of accounts can be modified to fit your requirements, but chart of depreciation is
always country
specific
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

SAP examen   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05   certification C-TFIN52-05

NO.9 Asset classes (Choose Five)
A. consist of a master data section and a depreciation area section
B. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets, you can
choose that
they be specified by the system
C. are assigned to at least one chart of depreciation
D. consist of a master data section only
E. asset classes are created at client level
F. for each depreciation area you can propose depreciation attributes for assets
G. you can suppress individual depreciation areas in each asset class
H. asset classes are created at company code level
Answer: A,B,C,E,G

SAP examen   certification C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05 examen   C-TFIN52-05 examen

NO.10 mySAP ERP delivers standard depreciation areas and additional areas cannot be
defined
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

SAP examen   certification C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05 examen   certification C-TFIN52-05

NO.11 You cannot specify attributes of each individual depreciation area
A. true
B. false
Answer: B

SAP examen   C-TFIN52-05   certification C-TFIN52-05

NO.12 Chart of depreciation (Choose Three)
A. is assigned to company code
B. you cannot add/delete additional areas
C. it is also possible to open depreciation areas after the production start of the system
D. you can delete areas you do not need
Answer: A,C,D

SAP   C-TFIN52-05 examen   certification C-TFIN52-05

NO.13 Each company code has its own number range and company codes cannot share
number ranges
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

SAP   C-TFIN52-05 examen   certification C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05 examen   C-TFIN52-05

NO.14 Which of the following statements about creating customer master records are
correct?
(Choose Four)
A. The company code is always a required entry.
B. An account group always gets assigned to a customer.
C. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or
optional,
depending upon the company code
D. The account number may be assigned by the user externally.
E. Information on each screen may be defined in configuration as mandatory, suppressed or
optional,
depending upon the account group
Answer: B,C,D,E

SAP   C-TFIN52-05   certification C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05 examen

NO.15 Debit Balance Check. (Choose Three)
A. Debit balance check can be maintained in the Vendor line items.
B. Vendor who has a debit balance, all of his line items always shown in the exception list
C. We can change the debit balance check.
D. Debit balance check can be carried out after payment run.
E. Debit Balance check is required if Vendor has a debit balance.
F. Debit balance check is carried out after payment proposal.
Answer: C,E,F

certification SAP   C-TFIN52-05   certification C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05

NO.16 Which of the following about vendor transaction is correct (Multi)? (Choose Two)
A. A vendor down payment request is a noted item.
B. A vendor down payment request cannot be included in payment program to produce down
payment
C. A vendor down payment is cleared after final invoice is received from vendor.
D. Vendor down payment is shown on balance sheet under normal reconciliation account for
payables.
E. Special g/l transaction is one, which is included in spl purpose ledger under coding block
in G/L
account
Answer: A,C

SAP examen   C-TFIN52-05 examen   C-TFIN52-05 examen   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05

NO.17 Which of following statements are correct?
A. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are
already created in
financial accounting but not yet created in sales and distribution.
B. The customer master data compares the customers in the legacy system with the
customers in the R/3
System.
C. The customer master data comparison program compares which master records are
already created in
purchasing but not yet in sales and distribution.
D. The customer mater data comparison program checks whether the customer master
record contains a
telephone number.
Answer: A

SAP   C-TFIN52-05 examen   C-TFIN52-05 examen

NO.18 Controlling area can include one or more company codes
A. true
B. false
Answer: A

SAP   certification C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05

NO.19 You define a financial statement version in two steps: (Choose Two)
A. Enter in the directory of financial statement versions
B. Define hierarchy levels and assign accounts
C. None of the above
Answer: A,B

SAP   certification C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05   certification C-TFIN52-05

NO.20 Cross company code Transaction
A. For cross company code transaction no configuration needs to be maintained
B. Cross company code document Transaction number contain company code of second
company number, document number of first company code and fiscal year.
C. All wrong
Answer: C

SAP   certification C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05

NO.21 In a Payment method definition: (Choose Two)
A. Define allowed currency for company code
B. Define allowed currency for country level
C. Define a maximum and min payment
D. Define house bank link
Answer: B,C

SAP   C-TFIN52-05 examen   C-TFIN52-05 examen   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05 examen

NO.22 Chart of depreciation is assigned to company code and necessary data for asset
accounting is added
to company code. Hence company code is available for use in asset accounting
A. false
B. true
Answer: B

SAP   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05

NO.23 An account group (multi) (Choose Three)
A. Is defined for every company code.
B. Defines the number range for a mater record.
C. Uses a field status group to control the field layout for the maintenance of mater records
D. Determines one-time accounts for accounts payable and accounts receivable.
Answer: B,C,D

SAP   C-TFIN52-05 examen   C-TFIN52-05   certification C-TFIN52-05   certification C-TFIN52-05

NO.24 Which of the following statements are correct? (Choose Three)
A. A house bank can be assigned to a business area within the payment program
configuration
B. A House bank account can be defined in more than one currency
C. The payments program can use a different House bank for each different payment method
D. When creating a House bank, you do not need to specify the country.
E. House bank master data must be created in advance, before assigning the House bank to
a payment
method in the payment program configuration
Answer: A,C,E

certification SAP   certification C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05 examen

NO.25 All reconciliation accounts and all G/L accounts with open item transactions in foreign
currency must
be assigned to the G/L account for realized losses and gains. Which of the following options
exist for this
assignment: (Choose Two)
A. A single G/L account can not be used per currencies and currency types.
B. A single G/L account can be used per currency.
C. A single G/L account can not be used per currency type
D. A single G/L account can be used for all currencies and currency types
Answer: B,D

certification SAP   C-TFIN52-05 examen   certification C-TFIN52-05

NO.26 Highest priority for deriving functional area is:
A. Manual Entry
B. Validation
C. CO document
D. Substitution
E. CO Master Data
Answer: A

SAP   C-TFIN52-05 examen   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05 examen   certification C-TFIN52-05   certification C-TFIN52-05

NO.27 Screen layout rules control
A. field selection
B. all are correct
C. maintenance level
D. references/copies
Answer: B

certification SAP   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05 examen   C-TFIN52-05

NO.28 Which of the following statements about financial reporting are correct.?
A. When displaying a financial statement, the system can automatically calculate the profit
and loss
statement result.
B. You can obtain a summarized financial statement for any hierarchy level defined in the
financial
statement version
C. A financial statement version cannot include more than one company code, unless you
are using FI-LC
D. A financial statement version displays either a balance sheet or a profit and lost statement,
not both.
E. The system can translate a financial statement into any currency for reporting purposes.
Answer: E

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NO.29 Drilldown reporting is a tool that enables you to analyze G/L account transaction figure
and financial
statements
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

SAP   certification C-TFIN52-05   C-TFIN52-05

NO.30 Layout for the master data of each asset class defines
A. number of tab pages
B. field groups that appear on tab pages
C. names of tab pages
D. all are correct
Answer: D

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