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Code d'Examen: EC0-350
Nom d'Examen: EC-COUNCIL (Ethical hacking and countermeasures)
Questions et réponses: 878 Q&As

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NO.1 Clive is conducting a pen-test and has just port scanned a system on the network. He has
identified the operating system as Linux and been able to elicit responses from ports 23, 25 and
53. He infers port 23 as running Telnet service, port 25 as running SMTP service and port 53 as
running DNS service. The client confirms these findings and attests to the current availability of
the services. When he tries to telnet to port 23 or 25, he gets a blank screen in response. On
typing other commands, he sees only blank spaces or underscores symbols on the screen. What
are you most likely to infer from this?
A.The services are protected by TCP wrappers
B.There is a honeypot running on the scanned machine
C.An attacker has replaced the services with trojaned ones
D.This indicates that the telnet and SMTP server have crashed
Correct:A

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.2 Samuel is the network administrator of DataX Communications, Inc. He is trying to configure his
firewall to block password brute force attempts on his network. He enables blocking the intruder's
IP address for a period of 24 hours time after more than three unsuccessful attempts. He is
confident that this rule will secure his network from hackers on the Internet. But he still receives
hundreds of thousands brute-force attempts generated from various IP addresses around the
world. After some investigation he realizes that the intruders are using a proxy somewhere else
on the Internet which has been scripted to enable the random usage of various proxies on each
request so as not to get caught by the firewall rule. Later he adds another rule to his firewall and
enables small sleep on the password attempt so that if the password is incorrect, it would take 45
seconds to return to the user to begin another attempt. Since an intruder may use multiple
machines to brute force the password, he also throttles the number of connections that will be
prepared to accept from a particular IP address. This action will slow the intruder's attempts.
Samuel wants to completely block hackers brute force attempts on his network. What are the
alternatives to defending against possible brute-force password attacks on his site?
A.Enforce a password policy and use account lockouts after three wrong logon attempts even though this
might lock out legit users
B.Enable the IDS to monitor the intrusion attempts and alert you by e-mail about the IP address of the
intruder so that you can block them at the Firewall manually
C.Enforce complex password policy on your network so that passwords are more difficult to brute force
D.You cannot completely block the intruders attempt if they constantly switch proxies
Correct:D

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.3 A program that defends against a port scanner will attempt to:
A.Sends back bogus data to the port scanner
B.Log a violation and recommend use of security-auditing tools
C.Limit access by the scanning system to publicly available ports only
D.Update a firewall rule in real time to prevent the port scan from being completed
Correct:D

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.4 What file system vulnerability does the following command take advantage of? type
c:\anyfile.exe > c:\winnt\system32\calc.exe:anyfile.exe
A.HFS
B.ADS
C.NTFS
D.Backdoor access
Correct:B

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.5 Which of the following built-in C/C++ functions you should avoid to prevent your program from
buffer overflow attacks?
A.strcpy()
B.strcat()
C.streadd()
D.strsock()
Correct:A B C

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.6 Travis works primarily from home as a medical transcriptionist. He just bought a brand new
Dual Core Pentium computer with over 3 GB of RAM. He uses voice recognition software to help
him transfer what he dictates to electronic documents. The voice recognition software is
processor intensive, which is why he bought the new computer. Travis frequently has to get on
the Internet to do research on what he is working on. After about two months of working on his
new computer, he notices that it is not running nearly as fast as it used to. Travis uses antivirus
software, anti-spyware software, and always keeps the computer up-to-date with Microsoft
patches. After another month of working on the computer, Travis' computer is even more
noticeably slow. Every once in awhile, Travis also notices a window or two pop-up on his screen,
but they quickly disappear.He has seen these windows show up, even when he has not been on
the Internet. Travis is really worried about his computer because he spent a lot of money on it, and
he depends on it to work. Travis scans his computer with all kinds of software, and cannot find
anything out of the ordinary. Travis decides to go through Windows Explorer and check out the
file system, folder by folder, to see if there is anything he can find. He spends over four hours
pouring over the files and folders and cannot find anything.But, before he gives up, he notices
that his computer only has about 10 GB of free space available.Since his hard drive is a 200 GB
hard drive, Travis thinks this is very odd. Travis downloads Space Monger and adds up the sizes
for all the folders and files on his computer. According to his calculations, he should have around
150 GB of free space. What is mostly likely the cause of Travis' problems?
A.Travis's computer is infected with stealth kernel level rootkit
B.Travis's computer is infected with Stealth Trojan Virus
C.Travis's computer is infected with Self-Replication Worm that fills the hard disk space
D.Logic Bomb is triggered at random times creating hidden data consuming junk files
Correct:A

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.7 Lori has just been tasked by her supervisor toonduct vulnerability scan on the corporate
network.She has been instructed to perform a very thorough test of the network to ensure that
there are no security holes on any of the machines.Lori's company does not own any commercial
scanning products, so she decides to download a free one off the Internet.Lori has never done a
vulnerability scan before, so she is unsure of some of the settings available in the software she
downloaded.One of the options is to choose which ports that can be scanned.Lori wants to do
exactly what her boss has told her, but she does not know what ports should be scanned. If Lori is
supposed to scan all known TCP ports, how many ports should she select in the software?
A.65536
B.1024
C.1025
D.Lori should not scan TCP ports, only UDP ports
Correct:A

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.8 Which programming language is NOT vulnerable to buffer overflow attacks?
A.Java
B.ActiveX
C.C++
D.Assembly Language
Correct:A

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.9 After a client sends a connection request (SYN) packet to the server, the server will respond
(SYN-ACK) with a sequence number of its choosing, which then must be acknowledged (ACK) by
the client. This sequence number is predictable; the attack connects to a service first with its own
IP address, records the sequence number chosen, and then opens a second connection from a
forged IP address. The attack doesn't see the SYN-ACK (or any other packet) from the server, but
can guess the correct responses. If the source IP address is used for authentication, then the
attacker can use the one-sided communication to break into the server. What attacks can you
successfully launch against a server using the above technique?
A.Session Hijacking attacks
B.Denial of Service attacks
C.Web page defacement attacks
D.IP spoofing attacks
Correct:A

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.10 Why is Social Engineering considered attractive by hackers and commonly done by experts in
the field?
A.It is not considered illegal
B.It is done by well-known hackers
C.It is easy and extremely effective to gain information
D.It does not require a computer in order to commit a crime
Correct:C

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.11 Bill has started to notice some slowness on his network when trying to update his company's
website and while trying to access the website from the Internet. Bill asks the help desk manager
if he has received any calls about slowness from the end users, but the help desk manager says
that he has not. Bill receives a number of calls from customers that cannot access the company
website and cannot purchase anything online. Bill logs on to a couple of his routers and notices
that the logs show network traffic is at an all time high.?He also notices that almost all the traffic
is originating from a specific address. Bill decides to use Geotrace to find out where the suspect
IP is originates from. The Geotrace utility runs a traceroute and finds that the IP is coming from
Panama.?Bill knows that none of his customers are in Panama so he immediately thinks that his
company is under a Denial of Service attack. Now Bill needs to find out more about the originating
IP address. What Internet registry should Bill look in to find the IP address?
A.LACNIC
B.ARIN
C.RIPE LACNIC
D.APNIC
Correct:A

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.12 Bill has successfully executed a buffer overflow against a Windows IIS web server. He has been
able to spawn an interactive shell and plans to deface the main web page. He first attempts to use
the "Echo" command to simply overwrite index.html and remains unsuccessful. He then attempts
to delete the page and achieves no progress. Finally, he tries to overwrite it with another page in
which also he remains unsuccessful. What is the probable cause of Bill's problem?
A.The system is a honeypot
B.The HTML file has permissions of read only
C.You cannot use a buffer overflow to deface a web page
D.There is a problem with the shell and he needs to run the attack again
Correct:B

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.13 What is the purpose of firewalking?
A.It's a technique used to map routers on a network link
B.It's a technique used to discover Wireless network on foot
C.It's a technique used to discover interface in promiscuous mode
D.It's a technique used to discover what rules are configured on a gateway
Correct:D

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.14 Mark works as a contractor for the Department of Defense and is in charge of network security.
He has spent the last month securing access to his network from all possible entry points. He has
segmented his network into several subnets and has installed firewalls all over the network. He
has placed very stringent rules on all the firewalls, blocking everything in and out except ports
that must be used. He does need to have port 80 open since his company hosts a website that
must be accessed from the Internet. Mark is fairly confident of his perimeter defenses, but is still
worried about programs like Hping2 that can get into a network through covert channels. How
should mark protect his network from an attacker using Hping2 to scan his internal network?
A.Block ICMP type 13 messages
B.Block all incoming traffic on port 53
C.Block all outgoing traffic on port 53
D.Use stateful inspection on the firewalls
Correct:A

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.15 What type of port scan is shown below? Scan directed at open port: ClientServer
192.5.2.92:4079 ---------FIN--------->192.5.2.110:23 192.5.2.92:4079 <----NO
RESPONSE------192.5.2.110:23 Scan directed at closed port: ClientServer 192.5.2.92:4079
---------FIN--------->192.5.2.110:23 192.5.2.92:4079<-----RST/ACK----------192.5.2.110:23
A.Idle Scan
B.FIN Scan
C.XMAS Scan
D.Windows Scan
Correct:B

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.16 Eric notices repeated probes to port 1080. He learns that the protocol being used is designed to
allow a host outside of a firewall to connect transparently and securely through the firewall. He
wonders if his firewall has been breached. What would be your inference?
A.Eric's network has been penetrated by a firewall breach
B.The attacker is using the ICMP protocol to have a covert channel
C.Eric has a Wingate package providing FTP redirection on his network
D.Somebody is using SOCKS on the network to communicate through the firewall
Correct:D

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.17 Maurine is working as a security consultant for Hinklemeir Associates.She has asked the
Systems Administrator to create a group policy that would not allow null sessions on the network.
The Systems Administrator is fresh out of college and has never heard of null sessions and does
not know what they are used for. Maurine is trying to explain to the Systems Administrator that
hackers will try to create a null session when footprinting the network. Why would an attacker try
to create a null session with a computer on a network?
A.Enumerate users and shares
B.Install a backdoor for later attacks
C.Escalate his/her privileges on the target server
D.To create a user with administrative privileges for later use
Correct:A

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.18 Bob is acknowledged as a hacker of repute and is popular among visitors of 'underground' sites.
Bob is willing to share his knowledge to those who are willing to learn, and many have expressed
their interest in learning from him. However, this knowledge has risks associated with it, as the
same knowledge can be used for malevolent attacks as well. In this context, what would be the
most effective method to bridge the knowledge gap between the "black" hats or crackers and the
"white" hats or computer security professionals?
A.Hire more computer security monitoring personnel to monitor computer systems and networks
B.Educate everyone with books, articles and training on risk analysis, vulnerabilities and safeguards
C.Train more national guard and reservist in the art of computer security to help out in times of emergency
or crises
D.Make obtaining either a computer security certification or accreditation easier to achieve so more
individuals feel that they are a part of something larger than life
Correct:B

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.19 A client has approached you with a penetration test requirement. They are concerned with the
possibility of external threat, and have invested considerable resources in protecting their
Internet exposure. However, their main concern is the possibility of an employee elevating his/her
privileges and gaining access to information outside of their department. What kind of penetration
test would you recommend that would best address the client's concern?
A.A Grey Hat test
B.A Grey Box test
C.A Black Hat test
D.A White Hat test
E.A Black Box test
F.A White Box test
Correct:B

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

NO.20 Samantha has been actively scanning the client network for which she is doing a vulnerability
assessment test. While doing a port scan she notices ports open in the 135 to 139 range. What
protocol is most likely to be listening on those ports?
A.FTP
B.SMB
C.Finger
D.Samba
Correct:B

EC-COUNCIL   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350   EC0-350

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ECSS dernières questions d'examen certification EC-COUNCIL et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: ECSS
Nom d'Examen: EC-COUNCIL (EC-Council Certified Security Specialist Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 337 Q&As

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NO.1 John works as an Office Assistant in DataSoft Inc. He has received an e-mail from
duesoft_lotterygroup@us.com with the following message:
The DueSoft Lottery Incorporation
This is to inform you that you have just won a prize of $7,500.00 for this year's Annual Lottery promotion,
which was organized by Msn/Yahoo Lottery in conjunction with DueSoft. We collect active online e-mails
and select five people every year as our winners through an electronic balloting machine. Please reply
within three days of receiving this e-mail with your full details like Name, Address, Sex, Occupation, Age,
State, Telephone number, and Country to claim your prize.
If John replies to this e-mail, which of the following attacks may he become vulnerable to?
A. Salami attack
B. Man-in-the-Middle attack
C. Phishing attack
D. DoS attack
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following types of attacks cannot be prevented by technical measures only?
A. Brute force
B. Ping flood attack
C. Smurf DoS
D. Social engineering
Answer: D

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NO.3 You are responsible for security at a company that uses a lot of Web applications. You are most
concerned about flaws in those applications allowing some attacker to get into your network. What
method would be best for finding such flaws?
A. Vulnerability scanning
B. Manual penetration testing
C. Automated penetration testing
D. Code review
Answer: A

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NO.4 Kerberos is a computer network authentication protocol that allows individuals communicating over a
non-secure network to prove their identity to one another in a secure manner. Which of the following
statements are true about the Kerberos authentication scheme?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Kerberos requires continuous availability of a central server.
B. Kerberos builds on Asymmetric key cryptography and requires a trusted third party.
C. Dictionary and brute force attacks on the initial TGS response to a client may reveal the
subject'spasswords.
D. Kerberos requires the clocks of the involved hosts to be synchronized.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 Which of the following representatives of incident response team takes forensic backups of the systems
that are the focus of the incident?
A. Lead investigator
B. Information security representative
C. Technical representative
D. Legal representative
Answer: C

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NO.6 Linux traffic monitoring tools are used to monitor and quickly detect faults in the network or a system.
Which of the following tools are used to monitor traffic of the Linux operating system?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. PsExec
B. IPTraf
C. MRTG
D. PsLogList
E. Ntop
Answer: B,C,E

EC-COUNCIL   ECSS   ECSS   ECSS   ECSS   ECSS

NO.7 Which of the following attacks CANNOT be detected by an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Denial-of-Service (DoS) attack
B. E-mail spoofing
C. Port scan attack
D. Shoulder surfing
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company requires a secure wireless
network. To provide security, you are configuring ISA Server 2006 as a firewall. While configuring
ISA Server 2006, which of the following is NOT necessary?
A. Defining how ISA Server would cache Web contents
B. Defining ISA Server network configuration
C. Setting up of monitoring on ISA Server
D. Configuration of VPN access
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following security policies will you implement to keep safe your data when you connect
your Laptop to the office network over IEEE 802.11 WLANs?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Using a protocol analyzer on your Laptop to monitor for risks.
B. Using an IPSec enabled VPN for remote connectivity.
C. Using portscanner like nmap in your network.
D. Using personal firewall software on your Laptop.
Answer: B,D

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NO.10 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security
of www.we-are-secure.com. He is using a tool to crack the wireless encryption keys. The description of
the tool is as follows:
Which of the following tools is John using to crack the wireless encryption keys?
A. AirSnort
B. Kismet
C. PsPasswd
D. Cain
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which of the following OSI layers is responsible for protocol conversion, data encryption/decryption,
and data compression?
A. Transport layer
B. Presentation layer
C. Data-link layer
D. Network layer
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following statements best describes a certification authority?
A. A certification authority is a type of encryption that uses a public key and a private key pair fordata
encryption.
B. A certification authority is an entity that issues digital certificates for use by other parties.
C. A certification authority is a technique to authenticate digital documents by using
computercryptography.
D. A certification authority is a type of encryption that uses a single key to encrypt and decryp t data.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following statements are true about routers?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Routers are responsible for making decisions about which of several paths network (orInternet)traffic
will follow.
B. Routers do not limit physical broadcast traffic.
C. Routers organize addresses into classes, which are used to determine how to move packets fromone
network to another.
D. Routers act as protocol translators and bind dissimilar networks.
Answer: A,C,D

EC-COUNCIL   ECSS   ECSS examen

NO.14 You have just set up a wireless network for customers at a coffee shop. Which of the following are
good security measures to implement?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Using WEP encryption
B. Using WPA encryption
C. Not broadcasting SSID
D. MAC filtering the router
Answer: A,B

EC-COUNCIL   certification ECSS   ECSS   certification ECSS   ECSS

NO.15 Which of the following proxy servers is also referred to as transparent proxies or forced proxies?
A. Intercepting proxy server
B. Anonymous proxy server
C. Reverse proxy server
D. Tunneling proxy server
Answer: A

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NO.16 Firewalking is a technique that can be used to gather information about a remote network protected by a
firewall. This technique can be used effectively to perform information gathering attacks. In this technique,
an attacker sends a crafted packet with a TTL value that is set to expire one hop past the firewall. Which
of the following are pre-requisites for an attacker to conduct firewalking?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. ICMP packets leaving the network should be allowed.
B. An attacker should know the IP address of the last known gateway before the firewall.
C. There should be a backdoor installed on the network.
D. An attacker should know the IP address of a host located behind the firewall.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.17 Which of the following is the first computer virus that was used to infect the boot sector of storage
media formatted with the DOS File Allocation Table (FAT) file system?
A. I love you
B. Melissa
C. Tequila
D. Brain
Answer: D

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NO.18 Fill in the blank with the appropriate word ___is software that is a subcategory of malware and refers to
unwanted software that performs malicious actions on a user's computer. Some its examples are Trojan,
adware, and spyware.
A. Crimeware
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL examen   ECSS   ECSS

NO.19 Which of the following needs to be documented to preserve evidences for presentation in court?
A. Incident response policy
B. Account lockout policy
C. Separation of duties
D. Chain of custody
Answer: D

EC-COUNCIL   ECSS   ECSS

NO.20 Which of the following security protocols are based on the 802.11i standard.?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. WEP
B. WPA2
C. WPA
D. WEP2
Answer: B,C

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Code d'Examen: PW0-070
Nom d'Examen: CWNP (Certified Wireless Technology Specialist)
Questions et réponses: 231 Q&As

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NO.1 Two RF signals, shown below, are operating at the same frequency of 2.142 MHz, but with different
amplitudes. Which of the following statements is true about these two signals?
A. The signal with a higher amplitude (Signal A) has less power than the signal with a lower amplitude
(Signal B).
B. Both signals have the same power.
C. The power of the two signals depends on the medium through which they are propagating.
D. The signal with a higher amplitude (Signal A) has more power than the signal with a lower amplitude
(Signal B).
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following wireless techniques provides the highest data transfer speed?
A. Infrared
B. 802.11b
C. Bluetooth
D. 802.11
Answer: B

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NO.3 You work as a Network Administrator for WebTech Inc. The company has a TCP/IP-based wireless
network.The company's management tells you to implement multiple-input multiple-output (MIMO)
transmission technology for wireless communication. Which of the following standards supports MIMO
technology?
A. 802.11a
B. 802.11b
C. 802.11n
D. 802.11
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following security policies will you implement to keep safe your data when you connect
your Laptop to the office network over IEEE 802.11 WLANs? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose two.
A. Using portscanner like nmap in your network.
B. Using personal firewall software on your Laptop.
C. Using an IPSec enabled VPN for remote connectivity.
D. Using a protocol analyzer on your Laptop to monitor for risks.
Answer: B, C

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NO.5 Which of the following organizations provides a seal of approval to interoperable devices?
A. IEEE
B. FCC
C. ETSI
D. Wi-Fi Alliance
Answer: D

CWNP   PW0-070   PW0-070

NO.6 Place the characteristics under their corresponding types of antenna used in Wireless LAN
(WLAN)?
A.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following hardware uses flash memory technology?
A. DDR2 SDRAM
B. Secure digital card
C. PCMCIA card
D. Smart card reader
Answer: B

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NO.8 In an 802.11b wireless network, which of the following two channels can be used so that there is no
interference among the access points? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all
that apply.
A. Channel 1 and channel 8
B. Channel 1 and channel 5
C. Channel 6 and channel 11
D. Channel 3 and channel 9
Answer: CD

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NO.9 The current WLAN standard of a company has been upgraded from IEEE 802.11b to IEEE 802.11n.
Due to this upgradation, what will be the change in the data rate?
A. 11 Mbps to 54+ Mbps
B. 11 Mbps to 256 Mbps
C. 11 Mbps to 54 Mbps
D. 11 Mbps to 128 Mbps
Answer: A

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NO.10 You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect Inc. The company has a Wireless LAN network.
You want to configure 802.11a parameters on the controller of the network. Which of the following
commands is valid to accomplish the task?
A. WLAN 802.11a
B. 802.11a
C. config 802.11a
D. standard 802.11a
Answer: C

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NO.11 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has an 802.11b wireless
network. You have configured an internal antenna with the wireless access point (WAP). You want to
increase the range of the WAP. Which of the following steps will you take to accomplish the task?
A. Install a wireless bridge on the network.
B. Install an external antenna.
C. Install a router on the network.
D. Install one more internal antenna.
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following is an advantage of using wireless IEEE 802.11g over IEEE 802.11b?
A. Wireless standard 802.11g has a greater range of distance than 802.11b
B. Wireless standard 802.11g is easier to implement than 802.11b
C. Wireless standard 802.11g is faster than 802.11b.
D. Wireless standard 802.11g supports Windows XP and 802.11b does not.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following types of communication is used by IEEE-11.a, IEEE-11.b, and IEEE-11.g
devices?
A. Full-duplex
B. Half-duplex
C. Simplex
D. DiplexAnswer: B

CWNP   PW0-070 examen   PW0-070   PW0-070

NO.14 Which of the following are true about a beacon frame?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is sent as a reply to a probe request.
B. It contains the SSIDs that the AP supports.
C. It works as an associated frame.
D. It is transmitted periodically to announce the presence of a wireless LAN network.
Answer: BD

certification CWNP   PW0-070   PW0-070 examen

NO.15 You need to add a separate wireless network card to your customer's laptop. You need to select the
appropriate expansion card type. Which of the following is NOT an expansion slot you will find in the
laptop?
A. PCMCIA TYPE III
B. PCI
C. PCMCIA TYPE I
D. Express
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following units measure relative RF power? Each correct answer represents a complete
solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Decibel Relative to a Milliwatt (dBm)
B. Decibel (dB)
C. Milliwatt (mW)
D. Decibel isotropic (dBi)
E. Decibel dipole (dBd)
F. Watt (W)
Answer: BDE

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NO.17 You work as a Network Administrator for McRoberts Inc. You are configuring a wireless network for the
company. You decide to use 802.11b wireless access points (WAPs) for the network. Which of the
following could affect the range of the network? Each correct answer represents a complete solution.
Choose all that apply.
A. The 5-500GHz interference
B. The 2.4GHz interference
C. A long length of antenna extension cable
D. A very high number of wireless users
Answer: B, C

CWNP   certification PW0-070   PW0-070   certification PW0-070   PW0-070

NO.18 Which of the following IEEE 802.11 amendments can use three radio chains per band to transmit
data?
A. IEEE 802.11h
B. IEEE 802.11g
C. IEEE 802.11n
D. IEEE 802.11a
Answer: C

CWNP   PW0-070   certification PW0-070   PW0-070

NO.19 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network.
You have to configure a wireless LAN on your network. Two separate buildings in front of each other are
to be connected wirelessly. Which of the following steps will you choose to accomplish the task?
A. Lay underground fiber optic cable backbone between the two buildings. Configure Ethernet network
including network of both building.
B. Configure one Wireless Access Point (WAP) in each building. Place one outdoor Yagi-Uda antenna in
each building facing towards each other.
C. Configure one WAP in each building. Place one outdoor Omni antenna in each building.
D. Configure one WAP in each building. Place one outdoor Yagi-Uda antenna in one building.
Place one outdoor Omni antenna in the other building.
Answer: B

CWNP   PW0-070 examen   PW0-070   PW0-070 examen

NO.20 Fill in the blank with the correct value. The 802.11g wireless standard applies to wireless LANs and
provides transmission speeds of up to Mbps.
A. 54
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: IK0-002
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (I-NET+ CERTIFICATION)
Questions et réponses: 221 Q&As

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NO.1 Which is not a required HTML Tag?
A. <TEXTAREA>
B. <Body>
C. <Head>
D. <HTML>
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which command matches IP address to MAC address?
A. arp
B. ipconfig
C. winipcfg
D. nbtstat
Answer: A

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NO.3 Your company has heterogeneous systems (different operating systems/machines). You want to have
a better security and you want your company to issue certificates for user communication. What server
should you implement?
A. Directory server
B. Certificate server C. Authentication server
D. Telnet server
Answer: B

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NO.4 What is the default port for Telnet?
A. 21
B. 23
C. 25
D. 80
Answer: B

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NO.5 Your company has connection with the business partners. What is it called?
A. Intranet
B. Extranet
C. Internet
D. Private network
Answer: B

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NO.6 What do you call the first DNS server?
A. First
B. Master
C. Slave
D. Primary
Answer: D

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NO.7 How are cookies stored?
A. Unencrypted text file on client
B. Unencrypted text file on server
C. Encrypted text file on client
D. Encrypted text file on server
Answer: A

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NO.8 Within a DNS record where can you find the name of the administrator.
A. PTR
B. SOA
C. CNAME
D. MX
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which device cannot be infected with a virus?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Gateway D. NIC
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which supports animation of graphics on web?
A. GIF87A
B. GIF89A
C. jpeg
D. png
Answer: B

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NO.11 How many 64 Kbps channels are in a ISDN?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 8
D. 12
Answer: B

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NO.12 What is the default port for HTTP?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: C

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NO.13 What TCP/IP protocol can be used for directory access?
A. LDAP
B. HTTP
C. FTP
D. NNTP
Answer: A

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NO.14 You have a Remote access server (RAS) used by your colleagues working at home. You are
concerned about the security. What should you do to have a better security measure?
A. Installing firewall
B. Change password
C. Use SSL for the connection
D. Enable call back
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which executes on server side?
A. CGI
B. C++
C. JavaScript
D. VBG
Answer: A

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NO.16 What is the default port for FTP?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: A

CompTIA   IK0-002   IK0-002   IK0-002

NO.17 What are the best types of documents to distribute using Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)?
A. Memos
B. Orders and invoices
C. Reports
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which command checks the current open TCP/IP connections?
A. netstat
B. Ping
C. ipconfig
D. winipcfg
Answer: A

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NO.19 What UART chip is needed to provide a modem connection of 115200 bps?
A. 85.xx
B. 65.xx
C. 100.xx
D. 165.xx
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which supports encryption?
A. UDP
B. TCP
C. PPP
D. SLIP
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which one has speeds off 51.84Mbps?
A. T1
B. T3
C. OC1
D. OC3
Answer: C

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NO.22 What TCP/IP utility is used to see current contents of a packet on your computer?
A. tracert
B. protocol analyzer
C. ping
D. ipconfig
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which DNS record tells you mail servers?
A. PTR
B. RP
C. CNAME
D. MX
Answer: D

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NO.24 When a new idea is being considered for adoption regarding the Internet, it is first posted as an:
A. FAQ
B. RFC
C. PDP
D. PDF
Answer: B

CompTIA   IK0-002   IK0-002 examen   IK0-002

NO.25 When a system is sent ICMP echo requests repeatedly, it is a
A. PING attack
B. SYN attack
C. SPOOFING
D. Telnet attack
Answer: A

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NO.26 What is the default port for SMTP?
A. 21
B. 25
C. 80
D. 110
Answer: B

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NO.27 What network device enables you to communicate with other systems using different protocol?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Bridge
D. Gateway
Answer: D

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NO.28 Web graphics 40mm x 60mm. Which format do you load to achieve the fastest download when user
browses?
A. 72dpi
B. 98dpi
C. 100dpi
D. 300dpi
Answer: A

CompTIA   IK0-002   IK0-002   IK0-002

NO.29 What do you need on your e-commerce system to process credit card transactions?
A. Online catalog
B. Virtual shopping carts/Checkouts
C. Merchant system
D. Intranet
Answer: C

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NO.30 What uses vector graphics to display web images?
A. Flash
B. Shockwave
C. Real Media D. QuickTime VR
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: PD0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA PDI+ Beta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 861 Q&As

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NO.1 A customer is concerned about excessive media jamming in their device. Which of the following is the
FIRST thing a technician should check?
A.Media feed rollers
B.Cassette drawers
C.Fusing section
D.Device log data
Answer: D

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NO.2 An encoder sensor typically detects:
A.paper position.
B.shaft rotation.
C.magnetic flux.
D.laser beam strength.
Answer: B

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NO.3 When onsite repairing a printer the technicians cell phone rings and it is a personal call, how should
the technician handle this?
A.Answer the call and talk to your friend at the customer site.
B.Answer the call and tell the friend you will call them later.
C.Let it go to voicemail, call them back between service calls.
D.Let it ring and call the friend back when the customer leaves.
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following failed components would be responsible for the fuser unit not heating properly?
A.Halogen lamps
B.Ball bearing
C.Hot roller
D.Pressure roller
Answer: A

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NO.5 A polygon mirror is part of which of the following assemblies?
A.Laser unit
B.Developer unit
C.Charge assembly
D.Fuser assembly
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is a reason black toner is used in color printers?
A.It decreases the print speed in color laser printers.
B.It prevents moir patterns when printing color photographs.
C.It reduces the cost per page when printing gray scale documents.
D.It makes the color toner resistant to smudging when wet.
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which of the following stages in the laser print process attracts toner to the latent image on the
photoconductor?
A.Writing
B.Fusing
C.Development
D.Transfer
Answer: C

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NO.8 When is it advisable to dump the waste toner from a technicians service vacuum?
A.When it is full.
B.It is not recommended.
C.Before performing preventative maintenance.
D.After each call.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following devices can route electrical signals only when activated by an external control
signal?
A.Solenoid
B.Relay
C.Clutch
D.Capacitor
Answer: B

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NO.10 During the photoconductor preparation step, residual charge can be removed by which of the
following? (Select TWO).
A.Pressure
B.Oil
C.Light
D.Gravity
E.Electrical Charge
Answer: CE

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NO.11 Which of the following is the FIRST step a technician should take when troubleshooting a device
issue?
A.Gather information from the customer.
B.Isolate the problem on the device.
C.Read the service documentation for possible causes.
D.Check the parts life counters.
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which of the following type of lamp is used for heating a fuser?
A.Xenon
B.Halogen
C.Incandescent
D.Light Emitting Diode
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following would be the BEST process for the technician to follow when beginning to
diagnose a unit at a customers site?
A.Check the printers error log, and then inform the primary user what the issue is.
B.Go directly to the printer and investigate any issues that are found.
C.Investigate the printers status, then ask the primary user to write down what they think is wrong.
D.Gather information from the primary user, and then evaluate the printers condition.
Answer: D

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NO.14 How should a service representative provide closure at the end of a call for a client?
A.Explain the issues of the call, the steps taken to resolve them and query the client if they have any
additional needs.
B.Explain the solution to the issue and then provide the client with the technicians contact information in
case they have any questions.
C.Give the client a technical explanation on the issue and how it was fixed; throw any faulty equipment in
the clients garbage.
D.Proceed to the next service call, check back with the client in a week to see if they have any additional
needs.
Answer: A

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NO.15 A technician is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a MFD and would like to eliminate the
possibility of another device on the network having the same IP address. The technician should:
A.disconnect the MFD and ping the IP address.
B.disconnect the MFD and ping the subnet mask.
C.disconnect the MFD and ping the loopback address.
D.run the ipconfig command from the command prompt.
Answer: A

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NO.16 How many CCDs are located in a single pass duplex ADF?
A.One
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   PD0-001   PD0-001   certification PD0-001   PD0-001   PD0-001 examen

NO.17 Which of the following items can be used as a discharge lamp?
A.Halogen lamp
B.Light Emitting Diodes (LED)
C.Fuser lamp
D.Cleaning roller
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following components is part of the ink dispersion system?
A.Print Heads
B.Cleaning heads
C.Pickup Roller
D.Charge Assembly
Answer: A

CompTIA   PD0-001   PD0-001 examen

NO.19 Which of the following utilities could be used to determine a subnet mask?
A.PING
B.NSLOOKUP
C.TRACERT
D.IPCONFIG
Answer: D

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NO.20 A customer has installed a new computer on their network. They can print to the printer but the option
for duplex printing is not available. All other computers have the option. Which of the following is the
cause of the problem?
A.The new computer is printing to the wrong IP address.
B.The new computer is using the wrong protocol.
C.The driver port is not setup correctly.
D.The option has not been selected on the driver.
Answer: D

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NO.21 In which of the following sections of an MFP would a technician find a Xenon Lamp?
A.The paper feed section
B.The fuser section
C.The scanner section
D.The transfer section
Answer: C

CompTIA   PD0-001   PD0-001 examen   PD0-001

NO.22 The customer has a dedicated ink jet fax machine that is used to send and receive faxes only from the
corporate office. The user complains of streaks on the received faxes while the internal self-prints are fine.
Which of the following should a technician recommend?
A.Clean the scanner glass on the distant machine.
B.Clean the scanner glass on the local machine.
C.Clean the printer head on the local machine.
D.Call the telephone company to increase the line signal level.
Answer: A

CompTIA   certification PD0-001   certification PD0-001   PD0-001

NO.23 The proper safety guidelines for handling any device specific consumables can be found in which of
the following documentation?
A.Material Safety Data Sheets
B.Installation Guides
C.Consumer Reports
D.Devices Parts Catalog
Answer: A

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NO.24 Scheduled preventative maintenance visits should be carried out:
A.after two unplanned service calls.
B.according to manufacturers specifications.
C.when the device is becoming unreliable.
D.every sixty days.
Answer: B

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NO.25 Which of the following is the purpose of a torque limiter in a roller?
A.To reduce wear and tear on rollers.
B.To provide resistance but still allow some slippage.
C.To limit the amount of movement by media.
D.To make it easier to replace rollers.
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which of the following functions is associated with the developer unit?
A.Supplies toner to the photoconductor
B.Charges the surface of the photoconductor
C.Writes the latent image on the photoconductor
D.Cleans the photoconductor
Answer: A

certification CompTIA   certification PD0-001   PD0-001   PD0-001

NO.27 Using the CMYK color model, the color purple is produced by combining cyan and which other color?
A.Green
B.Magenta
C.Yellow
D.Black
Answer: B

CompTIA   PD0-001   PD0-001

NO.28 When arriving at the customers location, two different users describe the problem, and from their
description it seems to be two separate problems. Which of the following is an appropriate step to take?
A.Ignore both of them and decide what the real problem is.
B.Set up a separate call for each problem.
C.Have them duplicate the problem at the device.
D.Ask a third person and see if the problem is the same thing.
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification PD0-001   PD0-001   PD0-001

NO.29 The polygon mirror is located in which of the following components?
A.Developer unit
B.Scanner unit
C.Fuser unit
D.Laser unit
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   PD0-001   PD0-001

NO.30 Which of the following types of media would MOST likely cause above normal amounts of machine
jamming?
A.Envelopes
B.Colored media
C.Letterhead
D.Pre punched
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: FC0-U21
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (Fundamentals of Technology)
Questions et réponses: 246 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following PC components has an air filter?
A. RAM
B. HDD
C. CD-ROM
D. CPU
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following devices is incorporated into many devices ranging from PDAs to mobile
phones?
A. Digital camera
B. Printer
C. Scanner
D. Bar code reader
Answer: A

certification CompTIA   FC0-U21   FC0-U21   FC0-U21

NO.3 Which of the following is NOT an expansion slot?
A. MCA
B. EISA
C. PCI
D. USB
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   FC0-U21 examen   FC0-U21   FC0-U21   FC0-U21

NO.4 How many colors you can have in a 24-bit color system?
A. 65,536
B. 24,000,000
C. 16,777,216
D. 36,733,216
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification FC0-U21   certification FC0-U21   FC0-U21   FC0-U21

NO.5 Which of the following software is stored in a computer's read-only memory (ROM) and remains stored
in it regardless of whether it is on or off?
A. Shareware
B. Firmware
C. Freeware
D. Adware
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following devices allows television signals to be received by a computer?
A. Sound card
B. Webcam
C. Tuner card
D. Video card
Answer: C

CompTIA examen   FC0-U21   FC0-U21   FC0-U21   FC0-U21   FC0-U21

NO.7 Which of the following is a pointing device offered in laptops?
A. Mouse
B. Cursor
C. Touch pad
D. Keyboard
Answer: C

certification CompTIA   FC0-U21 examen   FC0-U21

NO.8 How many read/write heads does a hard disk drive have for each platter surface?
A. 16
B. 1
C. 4
D. 2
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following key combinations is used to open the Start menu?
A. Ctrl+z
B. Ctrl+r
C. Ctrl+Alt+z
D. Ctrl+Esc
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is NOT an expansion slot?
A. EISA
B. AGP
C. PCIe
D. USB
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   FC0-U21   certification FC0-U21   FC0-U21   FC0-U21

NO.11 Which of the following PC components has an air filter?
A. Processor
B. LAN Card
C. RAM
D. HDD
Answer: D

CompTIA   certification FC0-U21   certification FC0-U21   FC0-U21   FC0-U21 examen

NO.12 Which of the following is NOT a parallel port mode?
A. EPP/ECP
B. ECP
C. EPS
D. EPP
Answer: C

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NO.13 How many keys does a computer keyboard have?
A. 85
B. 112
C. 104
D. 64
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification FC0-U21   FC0-U21

NO.14 What amount of data can a sector hold?
A. 1000 bytes
B. 512 bytes
C. 625 bytes
D. 1024 bytes
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following uses hard disk drive space to provide extra memory for a computer?
A. File system
B. RAM
C. Virtual memory
D. Cluster
Answer: C

CompTIA   FC0-U21   FC0-U21   certification FC0-U21

NO.16 Identify whether the statement given below is true of false.
"A Secure Digital (SD) card is slightly thicker than a MultiMedia Card (MMC)."
A. False
B. True
Answer: B

CompTIA   FC0-U21   FC0-U21

NO.17 Which of the following is NOT an analog display standard?
A. VGA
B. DVI
C. CGA
D. SVGA
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which of the following terms refers to printing on both sides of the paper?
A. Duplex printing
B. Simplex printing
C. Dual printing
D. Multiplex-printing
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following ports uses a 6-pin interface?
A. 1394a
B. Parallel
C. Serial
D. 1394b
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following expansion buses is used in Laptops?
A. PCI
B. PCMCIA
C. MCA
D. ISA
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   FC0-U21   FC0-U21   FC0-U21 examen

NO.21 Which of the following is a video capture device connected to a computer or computer network?
A. Web camera
B. USB optical drive
C. Camcorder
D. Digital camera
Answer: A

CompTIA   FC0-U21 examen   FC0-U21   certification FC0-U21   FC0-U21

NO.22 Which of the following is known as Memory Controller Hub?
A. North bridge
B. South bridge
C. Address bus
D. CPU
Answer: A

CompTIA   FC0-U21   FC0-U21   FC0-U21

NO.23 Which of the following devices uses charge-coupled device (CCD)?
A. Touch screen
B. Printer
C. Touchpad D. Image Scanner
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which of the following types of formatting can only be done by the manufacturer?
A. Quick formatting
B. High-level formatting
C. Low-level formatting
D. Initial-level formatting
Answer: C

CompTIA   FC0-U21   certification FC0-U21

NO.25 Which of the following ports uses a 9-pin interface?
A. USB
B. SCSI
C. 1394b
D. Serial
Answer: C

CompTIA   FC0-U21   FC0-U21   FC0-U21

NO.26 Which of the following is the process of bypassing the CPU?
A. Caching
B. DMA
C. Spoofing
D. Spooling
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   FC0-U21   FC0-U21   FC0-U21 examen   FC0-U21

NO.27 Which of the following is an interface that is used to connect a hard disk drive to a computer?
A. MCA
B. IDE
C. PCI
D. AT
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   FC0-U21 examen   FC0-U21

NO.28 What is the maximum data transfer rate supported by IEEE 1394b port?
A. 256 Kbps
B. 800 Mbps
C. 256 Mbps
D. 400 Mbps
Answer: B

CompTIA   FC0-U21   FC0-U21   FC0-U21   FC0-U21 examen

NO.29 Which of the following components of a laptop is NOT upgradeable?
A. RAM
B. NIC
C. Hard disk
D. Motherboard
Answer: D

CompTIA   certification FC0-U21   FC0-U21 examen   certification FC0-U21

NO.30 Which of the following is not measured by the digital pocket multimeter?
A. Cable continuity
B. Bad sectors on hard disk
C. Power connectors' voltage
D. Power supply voltage
Answer: B

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-554
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Application Development Framework 11g Essentials)
Questions et réponses: 87 Q&As

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NO.1 For a Customers view object, you have defined a view criteria to show only U.S.
customers. On an ADF Faces page, you already have an ADF Faces table displaying
data from the Customers view object. How would you display a query panel on the
page that will allow you to select the view criteria and filter the existing Customers
table on the page?
A. Drag the view criteria as a query panel.
B. Drag the view criteria to the existing table and select query panel with table.
C. Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the ID property of the query
panel to reference the table.
D. Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the Resultcomponent ID
property of the query component to reference the table.
E. Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the Model property of the
query component to reference the table binding.
F. Drag the view criteria as a query panel, and then set the value property of the query
component to reference the table binding.
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z1-554   certification 1Z1-554   certification 1Z1-554

NO.2 You are debugging an application module method that seems to be causing an error
when the argument value is anything but "2". How could you most efficiently debug
this issue?
A. Set a breakpoint on the first line of the method implementation and set the
breakpoint property to break only for threads named oracie.jbo.Exception.
B. Set a breakpoint on the first line of the method implementation and set the
breakpoint pass count property to 2.
C. Set a breakpoint on the first line of the method implementation and set the
breakpoint condition to arg ! = 2.
D. Set a breakpoint on the method declaration (where the argument is defined) and
step through the breakpoint at execution to determine the argument value.
E. Set a breakpoint on the method declaration (where the argument is defined) and set
the condition to arg == 2.
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z1-554   1Z1-554   1Z1-554   1Z1-554   1Z1-554

NO.3 You have found a declarative component that you would like to use on one of the
pages that you are designing. Choose the correct sequence of steps to add the
component to the page.
A. Select the ADF library from the Component Palette. Add the ADF library to the
current project. Select the declarative component and drag it to the page. Deploy the
component's project as an ADF library JAR file.
B. Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file. Add the ADF library
to the current project. Select the ADF library from the Component Palette. Select the
declarative component and drag it to the page. C. Add the ADF library to the current
project. Select the ADF library from the Component Palette. Select the declarative
component and drag it to the page.
Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file.
D. Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file. Select the ADF
library from the Component Palette. Select the declarative component and drag it to
the page. Add the ADF library to the current project.
E. Deploy the component's project as an ADF library JAR file. Select the ADF library
from the Component Palette. Add the ADF library to the current project. Select the
declarative component and drag it to the page.
Answer: A

Oracle   1Z1-554   1Z1-554

NO.4 You select a binding In the page definition file and set the ChangeEventPolicy
property to ppr. What effect does this action have on the way the page is rendered?
A. It allows a component to partially refresh another component whose partialSubmit
property is set to true.
B. When a user selects a new value In a field, the portion of the page where that
component resides is redrawn.
C. It enables you to add a component as a partial target for an event, so that when that
event is triggered, the partial target component is refreshed.
D. Components whose values change as a result of back-end logic are automatically
repainted.
Answer: A

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NO.5 An application module is named MyAppModule. No Java component is defined for
the module but the application does define a base class that extends
racle.jbo.serverAppiicationModuleimp1. Which two statements are true in this
scenario?
A. Code In the base class will only be implemented if MyAppModuleApp1. java
extends the base class.
B. Any code in the base class will be implemented by MyAppModule.
C. No code in the base class will be implemented because an application-specific Java
component named MyAppModuleImp1. java does not exist.
D. Any code in the base class will be implemented by MyAppModuleDefimp1.java.
E. The MyAppModule. xml definition will include a reference to the base class.
Answer: B

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