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Code d'Examen: ST0-135
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Symantec Network Access Control 12.1 Technical Assessment )
Questions et réponses: 220 Q&As

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NO.1 An organization's security policy requires Host Integrity checks to run only when the client is
connecting through a VPN concentrator whose internal interface is attached to a Gateway Enforcer.
Which setting should be configured to only check Host Integrity on these external clients, but not check
clients on the local network?
A. Apply the Host Integrity agent to the external computers only.
B. Add the IP addresses of the internal clients that need not be checked to the "Trusted Internal IP
Address Range".
C. Select "Only do Host-Integrity checking through the Gateway or DHCP Enforcer".
D. Block port UDP 39999 on the client firewalls of the internal clients, so that they cannot be challenged
by the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.2 On a LAN Enforcer, which command shows the switch action table decisions in real time?
A. show spm
B. show auth live
C. show kernel live
D. show action live
Answer: C

Symantec   ST0-135   ST0-135

NO.3 An organization with a Gateway Enforcer behind a VPN concentrator that is performing NAT,
determines that clients are being blocked. What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The client is missing from the MAC Address Bypass list.
B. The IP address of the internal interface of the VPN connector needs to be added to the Trusted
External IP Address list.
C. The Enforcer is placed in the wrong physical location on the network.
D. Static routes need to be added to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager to pass the client traffic.
Answer: B

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NO.4 The 802.1x protocol has three major components: Supplicant, Authenticator and Authentication Server.
Which elements serve each of these components when Symantec Network Access Control is being
configured to use LAN Enforcement?
A. Supplicant: Symantec Endpoint Protection Client,
Authenticator: Symantec LAN Enforcer,
Authentication Server: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller
B. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: 802.1x Enabled Switch,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
C. Supplicant: Network Access Control Client,
Authenticator: Symantec Endpoint Protection Policy Manager,
Authentication Server: Symantec LAN Enforcer
D. Supplicant: Microsoft Supplicant,
Authenticator: Microsoft Active Directory Domain Controller,
Authentication Server: Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which two are explanations of why auto-location switching may be useful for Host Integrity? (Select
two.)
A. It can define different Remediation sources, based on location.
B. It can enable different Antivirus features, based on location.
C. It can choose different Firewall rule sets, based on location.
D. It can select different Host Integrity checks, based on location
E. It can enable different LiveUpdate features, based on location.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Which log contains IP address, connection attempt, port information, and the direction of the
connection?
A. Enforcer Client log
B. Enforcer Kernel log
C. Enforcer Traffic log
D. Enforcer Packet log
Answer: C

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NO.7 How does Symantec Network Access Control handle location switching compared to Symantec
Endpoint Protection?
A. It uses a reverse logic structure.
B. It excludes locations.
C. It uses locations instead of groups.
D. It handles locations in the same way.
Answer: D

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NO.8 In an Enforcer command line interface, which filter is used to capture communication traffic between an
Enforcer and a Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. auth
B. client
C. query
D. spm
Answer: D

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NO.9 What should an administrator do to obtain additional information about Host Integrity checking for a
newly implemented Host Integrity policy?
A. Create a customized computer status report on the management server.
B. Enable the reporting of additional log events on the client systems.
C. Set verbose logging on the Host Integrity policy.
D. Enable debug logging on the enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which packets are periodically sent from an Enforcer to find other Enforcers on the network?
A. Failover
B. Discover
C. ARP
D. OSPF
Answer: A

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NO.11 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator needs a custom requirement to run a script if a file does not exist. Which modification to
the logic shown in the exhibit performs this functionality?
A. Add a nested AND/OR statement to run a script after the END IF.
B. Add a nested result to run a script after the Pass.
C. Use an OR modifier to run a script after the IF.
D. Use an ELSE statement to run a script after the THEN.
Answer: D

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NO.12 How can an administrator provide computers on a quarantine VLAN with access to remediation
materials without using static routes?
A. Assign a virtual IP address to the NIC on the remediation server and add it to the quarantine VLAN.
B. Create a static route from the quarantine VLAN to the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager in the
Enforcer command line interface.
C. Multi-home the remediation server and connect one NIC to a port assigned to the quarantine VLAN.
D. Put a wireless access point on the quarantine VLAN to provide wireless access to quarantined clients.
Answer: C

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NO.13 At the Enforcer (debug)# prompt, which command enables the most detailed level of debugging?
A. level engineer
B. level verbose
C. level fine
D. level error
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which check can be performed using custom requirements to verify whether "a product is installed" on
a client machine?
A. check the registry keys to see if the product is installed
B. check the service snap-in to see if the product is installed
C. check the policy document to see if the product is installed
D. check the IT documentation to see if the product is installed
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which default port must a firewall administrator open to enable communication between an Enforcer
and the Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager?
A. 1433
B. 1812
C. 8443
D. 8080
Answer: B

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NO.16 A Helpdesk technician is examining the logs for a particular client when he notices something odd. A
Host Integrity event is listed for a client as failing a requirement, but that client machine is still able to
access the network even after having the check rerun several times. Why would the client's Host Integrity
status still pass?
A. The requirement logic is malfunctioning and the Helpdesk technician should notify the administrator to
contact the vendor.
B. It is likely to be a problem with the recording of the status. The log search must be rerun to update the
status.
C. The administrator has configured that requirement to allow the Host Integrity policy to pass even if it
fails.
D. The administrator has configured the OS to ignore Host Integrity even when it fails.
Answer: D

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NO.17 What will happen if a user switches to a location with a different Host Integrity policy while a Host
Integrity check is in progress?
A. The Host Integrity check will fail and the client will be denied network access.
B. The client will stop the check and the user may get a timeout if attempting to reach remediation
resources.
C. The client is permitted guest access to the quarantine network until the next scheduled Host Integrity
check.
D. The Host Integrity check always completes prior to moving between locations.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which statement is true about Symantec Network Access Control compliance?
A. It ensures that endpoints, such as clients and servers, meet specific administrator-defined
requirements.
B. It ensures the management of a secure client endpoint through the creation and implementation of
group policies.
C. It provides services needed by a client to bring itself up to spec in order to gain access to network
resources.
D. It provides clients with the ability to configure and deliver content and product updates to other clients
in the same topological location.
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which two databases are supported when Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager is being configured?
(Select two.)
A. Oracle Database 11g
B. Microsoft SQL Server 2005, SP2
C. Microsoft SQL Express, SP1
D. Microsoft SQL Server 2008
E. MySQL Database 5.5
Answer: B,D

Symantec examen   certification ST0-135   certification ST0-135

NO.20 A Host Integrity policy has a complex custom conditional check that has three IF THEN statements, two
of which have ELSE statements. How many ENDIF statements are required?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Answer: C

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NO.21 What are the correct connection settings for a serial connection?
A. Data Bits: 8; Parity: none; Stop Bits: 1
B. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 1
C. Data Bits: 8; Parity: even; Stop Bits: 1
D. Data Bits: 8; Parity: odd; Stop Bits: 2
Answer: D

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NO.22 How can access be permitted to remediation services when a client fails the Host Integrity check using
a Gateway Enforcer?
A. Add the client's IP address to the Trusted External IP Address List.
B. Add the client's MAC Address to the Mac Address Bypass table.
C. Add the IP addresses of the hosts to the Trusted Internal IP Address List.
D. Add the client to the Allowed Client table on the Enforcer.
Answer: C

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NO.23 When would the Enforcer need to be reset to factory defaults?
A. to change the type of Enforcer
B. to upgrade the Enforcer
C. to purge any errors on the Enforcer
D. to purge all logs from the Enforcer
Answer: A

Symantec   ST0-135   ST0-135

NO.24 A guest is unable to download the On-Demand client. The guest is running Windows 7 64-bit and
connecting with the Mozilla Firefox browser. The computer has 512 MB RAM and 50 MB free disk space.
What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The guest's system has insufficient disk space.
B. The guest's browser is unsupported.
C. The guest's operating system is unsupported.
D. The guest's system has insufficient RAM.
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which protocol is used to transfer packet captures from an Enforcer?
A. FTP
B. HTTP
C. TFTP
D. SFTP
Answer: C

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NO.26 Refer to the exhibit.
A Symantec Network Access Control administrator is trying to implement two Gateway Enforcers in
failover mode. The administrator has implemented the two Enforcers in the network as shown in the
exhibit. After starting both Gateway Enforcers, the administrator finds that both Enforcers are in active
mode. What is the likely cause of the problem?
A. The failover configuration is missing.
B. The router is blocking multicast traffic.
C. The administrator failed to configure the Enforcers in Symantec Endpoint Protection Manager.
D. The Gateway Enforcers are configured in the same Gateway Enforcer group.
Answer: B

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NO.27 When a Gateway Enforcer is being deployed, which port needs to be kept open between the clients
and the Enforcer?
A. TCP 1812
B. TCP 39999
C. UDP 39999
D. UDP 1812
Answer: C

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NO.28 What is the default time interval for Host Integrity checks?
A. Continuous
B. 2 minutes
C. 5 minutes
D. 30 minutes
Answer: B

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NO.29 An organization has deployed Symantec Network Access Control with LAN Enforcer. Historically, all
clients were Windows based endpoints. Now, Linux endpoints that authenticate with Microsoft Active
Directory will need to be authenticated through the LAN Enforcer. Which entry needs to be added to the
Switch Profile Action table to open the port for Linux endpoints once they have been authenticated
through Active Directory user credentials?
A. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Pass, Policy Check: Pass, Action: Open Port
B. Host Authentication: Fail, User Authentication: Fail, Policy Check: Ignore, Action: Close Port
C. Host Authentication: Unavailable, User Authentication:Pass, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Open
Port
D. Host Authentication: Pass, User Authentication: Unavailable, Policy Check: Unavailable, Action: Close
Port
Answer: C

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NO.30 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator has created a custom requirement to remediate an operating system patch. The custom
requirement appears to be working intermittently with clients that fail the patch installation, passing the
requirement anyway. What is the likely cause of the issue?
A. The logic is missing a Fail result.
B. The logic is missing an ELSE statement.
C. The logic has an extra Pass result.
D. The logic needs an additional IF/THEN item.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: ST0-149
Nom d'Examen: Symantec (Storage Foundation and HA 6.0 Windows Technical Assessment )
Questions et réponses: 171 Q&As

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NO.1 Solutions for which application are available in the Storage Foundation - High Availability Solution
Configuration Center?
A. Microsoft Hyper-V
B. Symantec Enterprise Vault
C. Symantec NetBackup
D. VMware vSphere
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which MountV resource attribute should be set to reduce failover time?
A. AutoFSClean
B. CheckFSAccess
C. PurgeStaleMountPoints
D. ForceUnmount
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which agent is used to configure high availability for a cluster aware application service if a specific
Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) agent is unavailable?
A. Proxy agent
B. GenericService agent
C. Process agent
D. ServiceMonitor agent
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which disk group type is required for Veritas Storage Foundation for Windows to work with a Microsoft
Failover Cluster?
A. Cluster Dynamic disk group
B. Private Dynamic disk group
C. Secondary Dynamic disk group
D. Primary Dynamic disk group
Answer: A

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NO.5 An administrator is designing a cluster in a Microsoft Windows environment with three systems. Two of
the systems are on the 192.168.4.0 Class C public network. The third system is on the
192.169.0.0 Class B public network. The administrator needs to have Microsoft Windows clients access
the service groups independent of the system on which they are running. Which feature or change must
be incorporated into the design?
A. use the Lanman resource in each service group
B. change the servers so they all reside on the same subnet
C. change the servers so they all use the same subnet class
D. use the subnet resource in each service group
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which command is used to validate recent changes made to the cluster configuration?
A. hasys -verify
B. haconf -verify
C. hacf -verify
D. hastatus verify
Answer: C

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NO.7 Which two system components are verified during a pre-installation check for Veritas Storage
Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows? (Select two.)
A. shared disk storage compatibility
B. total physical memory
C. aggregate CPU performance
D. Active Directory
E. available installation disk space
Answer: B,E

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NO.8 What are the two site-based allocations for the site-aware allocation feature? (Select two.)
A. site-separated allocation
B. site-based allocation
C. site-specific allocation
D. site-confined allocation
E. site-campus allocation
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Which feature is used to improve initial mirror synchronization time?
A. FastResync
B. SmartSnap
C. FastSync
D. SmartMove
Answer: D

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NO.10 What are two different ways to perform an upgrade for a Veritas cluster? (Select two.)
A. parallel upgrade
B. offline upgrade
C. online upgrade
D. rolling upgrade
E. tiered upgrade
Answer: A,D

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NO.11 Which utility is used to back up the private region?
A. vxcbr
B. vxsnap
C. vxassist
D. vxdg
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which utility is used to determine whether a network adapter maintains its connection status in a
system-defined variable?
A. getmac
B. getcomms
C. NICTest
D. ping
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which benefit specific to Campus clusters does Veritas Storage Foundation 6.0 for Windows offer?
A. storage live migration
B. extended attributes
C. replicated data
D. site aware allocation
Answer: D

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NO.14 An application is under maintenance for a application update on Server2. The application administrator
wants Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) to keep the application running on Server2, but fault the service group
and resource if a resource faults. Which service group attribute can accomplish this?
A. Priority
B. Evacuate
C. Frozen
D. Load
Answer: C

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NO.15 Which feature is available when Veritas Cluster Server (VCS) is configured in secure mode?
A. SSL to encrypt communication between cluster nodes
B. a single sign-on mechanism to connect to a cluster
C. an isolated and secure environment for running applications
D. root broker configured in a stand-alone system outside cluster
Answer: B

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NO.16 What is the minimum amount of memory required to make Microsoft Hyper-V virtual machines highly
available with Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability Solutions 6.0 for Windows?
A. 2GB
B. 3GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Answer: C

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NO.17 What is the default load balancing setting for the Dynamic Multi-Pathing (DMP) Active/Active mode?
A. Balanced Path
B. Round-robin
C. Weighted Paths
D. Least Blocks
Answer: C

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NO.18 What is the minimum permission required to install Veritas Storage Foundation and High Availability
Solutions 6.0 for Windows.?
A. Domain Administrator
B. Local Administrator
C. Domain Operator
D. Local User
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which process enables the renaming of an imported dynamic disk group named DGName in Veritas
Enterprise Administrator?
A. right-click on disk group object DGName, select rename Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
B. select disk group object DGName, press F2, enter new name
C. right-click on disk object DGName, select Deport Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
D. select disk group object DGName, select Import Dynamic Disk Group, enter new name
Answer: A

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NO.20 What is the recommended number of NICs per system to configure a two node cluster?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Answer: B

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Nom d'Examen: IBQH (International Board for Quality in Healthcare)
Questions et réponses: 300 Q&As

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NO.1 One of the most important duties that the project manager performs is
A. Cost management
B. Integration management
C. Quality management
D. Risk management
Answer: B

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NO.2 The Infection control team in a hospital carried out a survey to estimate the incidence of health care
workers colonized by MRSA. During presenting the data in a meeting of the team, what is the most
important information they should look for while analyzing the results of the survey?
A. Gender of the HCW colonized by MRSA
B. The ward where MRSA colonized HCW work
C. Type of patients they serve
D. Site of MRSA colonization (nose, hands or other site)
Answer: B

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NO.3 In a debate about the use of clean disposable gloves versus not using any gloves while giving
subcutaneous injections, which of the following can mostly help the infection control physician make a
decision?
A. Risk assessment
B. National guidelines
C. Cost benefit and availability of the gloves in the healthcare facility
D. The decision provided by the infection control committee
Answer: A

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NO.4 Effective communication is needed for
A. getting things done
B. Conferring with others to come to terms with them or to reach an agreement
C. The exchange of information
D. Taking decisions independently
Answer: C

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NO.5 An infection control team conducted a refreshment training day for surgeons and nurses of the
operating theatre. All of the following were recommended for sound infection control practice in their
everyday practice except
A. Open foot wear must never be worn in the operating room
B. Personnel attending the patient should not leave the theatre until gown, mask, gloves and goggles are
all removed
C. If the gloves are torn, they should be removed immediately and other sterile gloves are worn
D. Double sterile gloves are recommended for all surgeons involved in the surgery
Answer: C

IBQH   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001

NO.6 Project management processes can be organized into
A. Initiating, planning, executing, controlling, and closing
B. Initiating, planning, contracting, executing, and administration
C. Designing, developing, testing, implementing and controlling
D. Initiating, designing, planning, executing, controlling, and Implementation
Answer: A

IBQH   IBQH001   IBQH001   certification IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.7 Your company's largest client has just completed an audit of your quality system. Three major
deficiencies were identified, and you risk losing this client if the problems are not corrected. As quality
manager the best plan of action is
A. Identify and correct the root cause of the deficiencies and implement changes to improve the quality
system
B. Reprimand the employees that caused the deficiencies
C. Wait until another client finds the same deficiencies, and then form a task team to investigate the
problems
D. Promise the client that the problems will be corrected
Answer: C

IBQH   IBQH001 examen   certification IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.8 The most important procedure for the prevention of infection from germs and viruses is
A. Wearing gloves
B. Wearing surgical mask
C. Effective hand washing
D. Wearing protective eyewear
Answer: C

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NO.9 To make a risk assessment of a procedure to choose your personal protective equipment, all of the
following must be kept in consideration except
A. The nature of the procedure
B. The risk of exposure to blood or body fluids
C. The risk of exposure to pathogenic micro-organisms
D. The race of the patient
Answer: D

IBQH   certification IBQH001   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001   IBQH001 examen

NO.10 Project success depends on a number of interrelated factors including time, cost, and scope control.
The success of any project depends primarily on.?
A. Customer compromise in defining his needs
B. Exceeding customer requirements through gold plating.
C. Customer satisfaction
D. Customer-supplier relationship
Answer: C

certification IBQH   IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.11 A case of hepatic cirrhosis was admitted to the ER. The patient had an attack of hematemesis few
minutes after admission and a large blood spill covered the floor .The nurse in charge brought the blood
spill kit and removed the blood. All the following are component of the blood spill kit except
A. Diluted chlorine solution
B. Goggle and plastic apron
C. Sterile gloves
D. Absorbent disposable tissue
Answer: C

IBQH   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.12 In the matrix management organization, which of the following is true?
A. The functional manager is responsible for improvement of employees ¯ sk ill s
B. The project manager is responsible for the employees' annual appraisal
C. The employee is responsible for his or her own skills improvement
D. The project manager is responsible for employees' skills improvement
Answer: A

IBQH   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001   IBQH001   IBQH001 examen

NO.13 During the team building phase in paediatric department, which of the following best describes the
actions of the team?
A. The group is uncertain of their duties
B. Members prioritize and perform tasks
C. The team leader usually delegates
D. The team functions run smoothly
Answer: A

IBQH   IBQH001   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.14 Standard precautions are measures of infection control that are used to reduce or eliminate exposure
to infectious agents .They include all of the following except
A. Work practices
B. Engineering controls
C. Personal protective equipment
D. Isolation of patients infected by contagious diseases
Answer: D

certification IBQH   IBQH001   certification IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.15 Company procedures require the creation of a lessons learned document. Which of the following is the
best use of this document?
A. Planning record for the current project
B. Planning for future projects
C. Informing the team about what the project manager has done
D. Informing the team about the project management plan
Answer: B

IBQH examen   IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.16 All of the following occur during the planning process group except
A. Develop project charter
B. Create WBS
C. Estimate costs
D. Sequence activities
Answer: A

IBQH examen   IBQH001 examen   IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.17 At an infection control meeting, the discussion was focused on the new neurosurgery department
which will be opened soon. Regarding the infection control measures, which must be taken to minimize
the risk of transmission of Creutzfeldt-Jakob Disease (CJD) and other prion diseases which of the
following statements is incorrect?
A. Flash sterilization is not effective in sterilizing equipment contaminated by prions
B. For semi critical items, immersion in 1 N sodium hydroxide for an hour is sufficient
C. Steam sterilization by gravity displacement autoclave 132 ¡ãC for 30 minutes is te preferred method
D. Prevacuum sterilizer at 134¡ãC for 18 minutes is effective
Answer: B

IBQH   IBQH001   certification IBQH001   IBQH001

NO.18 To establish effective infection control in a health care facility which of the following is critical?
A. A physician and a nurse with responsibilities for infection control
B. A manual of critical infection control policies and an educational program for staff
C. Senior management commitment
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which organization is closest to a functional organization?
A. Strong matrix organization
B. Balanced matrix organization
C. Projectized organization
D. Weak matrix organization
Answer: D

certification IBQH   IBQH001   IBQH001   certification IBQH001   certification IBQH001

NO.20 A project is defined as
A. An endeavor, which is planned, executed, and controlled, performed by people, and constrained by
limited resources
B. A process of considerable scope that implements a plan
C. A temporary endeavor undertaken to create a unique product or service
D. An objective based effort of temporary nature
Answer: C

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L'avènement de la certification Pegasystems pratique d'examen PEGACLSA-6-2V2 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: PEGACLSA-6-2V2
Nom d'Examen: Pegasystems (Certified Lead System Architect (CLSA) 6.2V2)
Questions et réponses: 149 Q&As

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NO.1 An application administrator has been sent a number of complaints that after nightly server
restarts the PRPC application is slow in the early morning. Which of the following actions can be
used to mitigate this issue? (Choose One)
A. Enable Assembly Avoidance
B. Restart System Pulse
C. Configure and execute Static Assembler
D. Increase the size of the Rule Cache
Answer: C

Pegasystems   PEGACLSA-6-2V2   PEGACLSA-6-2V2 examen   PEGACLSA-6-2V2

NO.2 When is it appropriate to use a spin-off? (Choose One)
A. When you wish to run calculations in a separate thread from the current process
B. When you wish to make a long-running SOAP service call asynchronously
C. When you wish to start another flow execution while continuing down the current process path
D. When you wish to call multiple connector rules concurrently
Answer: C

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NO.3 A rule is shown in the Final Conflicts report after doing an upgrade. Which of the following
describe what could be done to resolve the conflict? (Choose Two)
A. The rule could be marked Final
B. The rule could be deleted or Withdrawn so that the standard version of the rule is executed
C. Do a SaveAs on the conflicting rule to a new name and update references to this new rule
D. The rule could be copied into the production RuleSet
E. The corresponding RuleSet could be locked
F. The rule could be copied into a more specific class
Answer: B,C

Pegasystems   PEGACLSA-6-2V2   PEGACLSA-6-2V2 examen   PEGACLSA-6-2V2

NO.4 You have been asked to build a human resources application that facilitates the work required
to
support new hires. For each new hire, multiple tasks must be done, such as "Acquire Computer"
and "Setup Payroll". You are having trouble deciding if each of these tasks should be represented
as separate assignments in the same case, or separate sub-cases. Which of the following
requirements will help you decide on the approach? (Choose Two)
A. It must be possible for "Acquire Computer" and "Setup Payroll" to be assigned to different
operators at the same time
B. It must be possible for the completion of one task to be independent from the other
C. It must be possible to edit fields for "Acquire Computer" and "Setup Payroll" at the same time
D. It must be possible to configure security differently; those who can open "Acquire Computer"
must not be able to open "Setup Payroll"
E. "Acquire Computer" and "Setup Payroll" require the capability to be reopened independently
Answer: C,E

Pegasystems   PEGACLSA-6-2V2   PEGACLSA-6-2V2

NO.5 A work type MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Work-Request has a PageList property .LineItems of class
MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Data-Item.
Another work type, MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Work-Order has a PageList property .ItemsForVendor
of class MyCo-FW-PurchaseApp-Data-Item.
An item has a calculation .TotalPrice = .Quantity * .UnitPrice.
The application is experiencing behavior where the TotalPrice is calculating correctly for Requests
but not for Orders. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this issue? (Choose
One)
A. The expression is likely defined as a context-sensitive expression ("only when the top level
page is of the applies to class")
B. The expression is likely defined as backward chaining
C. The expression is likely defined as a context-free expression ("regardless of any page it is
contained in")
D. The expression is likely defined as forward chaining
Answer: A

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Dernières ISQI IREB examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: IREB
Nom d'Examen: ISQI (IREB Certified Professional for Requirements Engineering)
Questions et réponses: 84 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following statements best characterize the relationship between a requirement engineer
and a stakeholder in the role of the tester.?
A. The requirement engineer delivers input for the work of the stakeholder
B. The output from the requirements engineer is managed by the stakeholder
C. The stakeholder delivers input for the requirements engineer
D. The stakeholder monitors the work of the requirements engineer
E. The work of the requirements engineer is not related to the role of the stakeholder
Answer: C

ISQI   IREB   certification IREB

NO.2 You are employed as a requirements engineer in a company that develops control software for electric
motors. During your work it becomes increasingly evident that the developers are very well aware of the
necessary requirements. Even through the requirements are next documented in their entirely.
Nevertheless, you decide to document requirements systematically. Which two of the following arguments
justifies this step? (Choose two)
Documenting requirements systematically is important, because . . .
A. Implementation without documented requirements is not possible
B. Non-documented requirements are difficult to negotiate between the stakeholders
C. The coverage of the requirements by means of test cause cannot be checked
D. Documented requirements are also good requirements
Answer: C

ISQI examen   IREB examen   IREB examen

NO.3 You are a project manager for a system that your company is creating for the military in the field of
logistics. A requirements engineer has been assigned to your project but does not have all the desirable
skills for this role. In respect to the attributes of the requirements engineer, which of the following
statements implies the greatest risk for the requirements engineering?
A. The requirements engineer is not familiar with the military ranks and so cannot deal adequately with
the hierarchical senilities.
B. The requirements engineer does not have detailed knowledge of the military norms and standards that
should be applied to the system.
C. The requirements engineer has no solid project management training
D. The requirements engineer is introverted and has no knowledge of requirements elicitation and
documentation
Answer: D

certification ISQI   IREB examen   IREB examen   IREB   certification IREB   IREB

NO.4 Which sentence best characterizes the term stakeholder ?
A. The external actors interacting with a system and technical interfaces to surrounding systems are
designated as stakeholders
B. Stakeholders are persons and organizations affected by the development and the of the system or of
the product
C. Stakeholders are special interest representatives who are responsible for the approval of the first
project phase
D. A stakeholder is responsible for the administration of the software development environment
Answer: B

ISQI examen   IREB   IREB examen

NO.5 In delimiting system and system context, a differentiation is made between the system boundary and
the context boundary. This differentiation is important in order to understand which aspects impact on the
requirements of the system to be deployed and which do not. (Choose two)
A. The context boundary separates the system from the system context
B. The system boundary and the context boundary define the system context
C. The system context includes all aspects that are not relevant to the requirements of the planned
system
D. Only the aspects within the system boundary must be taken into account in order to determine the
requirements of the system to be deployed
E. The selection of the system boundary establishes which aspects are converted by the system to be
deployed which be deployed as scope.
Answer: A,B

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Les meilleures ISQI CTFL_UK examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: CTFL_UK
Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL_UK))
Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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NO.1 Consider the typical objectives of testing. Which of the following metrics can be used to
measure the effectiveness of the testing process in achieving one of those objectives? 1 credit
A. Average number of days between defect discovery and resolution
B. Percentage of requirements covered
C. Lines of code written per developer per day
D. Percentage of test effort spent on regression testing
Answer: B

ISQI examen   certification CTFL_UK   CTFL_UK examen   CTFL_UK

NO.2 Since the system is in the medical domain and therefore in the safety critical area, testing
needs to be rigorous and evidence is required that the system has been adequately tested. Identify
THREE measures that would typically be part of the test approach in this domain and which are not
always applicable in other domains! 1 credit
A. High level of documentation
B. Failure Mode and Effect Analysis (FMEA) sessions
C. Traceability to requirements
D. Non-functional testing
E. Master test planning
F. Test design techniques
G. Reviews
Answer: A,B,C

certification ISQI   certification CTFL_UK   CTFL_UK examen   CTFL_UK

NO.3 You have been given responsibility for the non-functional testing of a safety-critical monitoring
& diagnostics package in the medical area. Which of the following would you least expect to see
addressed in the test plan? 1 credit
A. Availability
B. Safety
C. Portability
D. Reliability
Answer: C

ISQI examen   certification CTFL_UK   CTFL_UK   certification CTFL_UK

NO.4 Considerable attention will be given in this project to defining exit criteria and on reporting
back on their status. Which combination of TWO exit criteria from the list would be best to use? 1
credit
I. Total number of defects found
II. Percentage of test cases executed
III. Total test effort planned versus total actual test effort spent
IV. Defect trend (number of defects found per test run over time
A.(i) and (ii)
B.(i) and (iv)
C.(ii) and (iii)
D.(ii) and (iv)
Answer: D

ISQI   CTFL_UK   CTFL_UK examen   CTFL_UK

NO.5 Identify the THREE types of formal peer reviews that can be recognized. 1 credit
A. Inspection
B. Management review
C. Walkthrough
D. Audit
E. Technical review
F. Informal review
G. Assessment
Answer: A,C,E

ISQI   certification CTFL_UK   CTFL_UK   CTFL_UK examen

NO.6 Explain how the above mentioned report may differ from a report that you produce for the
project manager, who is a test specialist Select TWO items from the following options that can be
used to report to the project manager and would not be included in a report to senior management.
1 credit
A. Show details on effort spent
B. List of all outstanding defects with their priority and severity
C. Give product risk status
D. Show trend analysis
E. State recommendations for release
Answer: A,B

certification ISQI   CTFL_UK   certification CTFL_UK   CTFL_UK

NO.7 A test log is one of the documents that need to be produced in this domain in order to provide
evidence of testing. However, the level of detail of test logs can vary. Which of the following is NOT
an influencing factor for the level of detail of the test logs being produced? 1 credit
A. Level of test execution automation
B. Test level
C. Regulatory requirements
D. Experience level of testers
Answer: D

ISQI   CTFL_UK examen   CTFL_UK

NO.8 You are about to release a test progress report to a senior manager, who is not a test specialist.
Which of the following topics should NOT be included in the test progress report? 1 credit
A. Product risks which have been mitigated and those which are outstanding.
B. Recommendations for taking controlling actions
C. Status compared against the started exit criteria
D. Detailed overview of the risk-based test approach being used to ensure the exit criteria to be
achieved
Answer: D

ISQI   CTFL_UK examen   CTFL_UK   CTFL_UK

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PRINCE2 meilleur examen PRINCE2, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: PRINCE2
Nom d'Examen: PRINCE2 (PRINCE2 Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 239 Q&As

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NO.1 Which part of a product lifespan is not part of a project life cycle in the eyes of PRINCE2?
A. The change-over to operational use of the product
B. Assessment of the value of the product after a period of use
C. The specification of the product
D. Finalisation of the business case
Answer: B

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NO.2 What other control is closely linked with configuration management?
A. Risk Management
B. Project Closure
C. Change Control
D. Project Initiation
Answer: C

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NO.3 How often does PRINCE2 recommend that open Project Issues should be reviewed?
A. Weekly
B. At Exception Assessments
C. At Checkpoint Meetings
D. On a regular basis
Answer: D

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NO.4 What environment does PRINCE2 assume?
A. A fixed-PRICE contract
B. A Customer/Supplier environment
C. A specialist environment
D. A third-party environment
Answer: B

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NO.5 If, after a Quality Review Follow-up Action, an error is still not resolved, what action should be taken?
A. An Exception Report is made
B. A Project Issue is raised
C. An Exception Memo is raised
D. The review is reconvened
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the more common term used in PRINCE2 for"deliverable"?
A. Item
B. Package
C. Product
D. Component
Answer: C

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NO.7 Fill in the missing phrase from"a project is a management environment that is created for the purpose of
delivering one or more business products according to......"
A. TheCustomer'sNeds
B. An Agreed Contract
C. The Project Plan
D. A specified Business Case
Answer: D

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NO.8 In what sequence would the (a) Project Initiation Document, (b) the Project Mandate and (c) the Project
Brief appear in a PRINCE2 project?
A. a, b, c
B. b, c, a
C. c, a, b
D. c, b, a
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is NOT a PRINCE2 definition of a project?
A. Has an organisation structure
B. Produces defined and measurable business products
C. Uses a defined amount of resources
D. Uses a defined set of techniques
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which one of these statements describes the true purpose of Acceptance Criteria?
A. A justification for undertaking the project based on estimated costs and anticipated benefits.
B. A measurable definition of what must be done for the final product to be acceptable to the Customer.
C. To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a project.
D. To triger 'Starting up a Project'.
Answer: B

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NO.11 The configuration of the final deliverable of the project is
A. The sum total of its products
B. The interim products
C. Its product description
D. The single end-product
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which document lists the major products of a plan with their key delivery dates?
A. Product Outline
B. Product Breakdown Structure
C. Checkpoint Report
D. Product Checklist
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following statements is FALSE? Project Managers using PRINCE2 are encouraged to...
A. Establish terms of reference as a prerequisite to the start of the project
B. Use a defined structure for delegation, authority and communication
C. Divide the project into manageable stages for more accurate planning
D. Provide brief reports to management at regular meetings
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which would require the production of an Exception Report?
A. When a Project Issue is received
B. When a Project Board member raises a complaint
C. When a Request For Change or Off-Specification has been received
D. When the current forecasts for the end of the stage deviate beyond the delegated tolerance bounds
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Customer quality expectations should be discovered in the process
"Starting Up a Project"
B. Acompany'sQMSbecomespartofPRINCE2
C. PRINCE2 may form part of a company's QMS
D. The Stage Plan describes in detail how part of the Project Plan will be carried out
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of these processes does NOT trigger the Planning (PL) process?
A. Starting Up a Project (SU)
B. Initiating a Project (IP)
C. Managing Stage Boundaries (SB)
D. Controlling a Stage (CS)
Answer: D

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NO.17 In "Closing a Project" (CP) the project files are archived. What is the explanation given for this?
A. To provide useful lessons to future projects
B. Never throw anything away.
C. This material may be needed by Programme Management
D. To permit any future audit of the project's actions
Answer: D

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NO.18 In a Product Breakdown Structure what category of product is a Highlight Report?
A. Quality
B. Specialist
C. Technical
D. Management
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which statement is NOT a fundamental principle of" Closing a Project"? "A clear end to a project"
A. provides a useful opportunity to take stock of achievements
B. provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are identified
C. provides the opportunity to evaluate achievement of all the expected benefits
D. is always more successful than the natural tendency to drift into operational Management
Answer: C

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NO.20 What other product is reviewed at the end of each stage apart from the Business Case and Project
Plan?
A. The Project Mandate
B. The Team Plan
C. The Risk Log
D. The Project Brief
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which product keeps track of Requests For Change.?
A. Request Log
B. Daily Log
C. Quality Log
D. Issue Log
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which of these statements is FALSE?
A. The Project Plan is an overview of the total project.
B. For each stage identified in the Project Plan, a Stage Plan is required.
C. An Exception Plan needs the approval of the next higher level of authority.
D. A Team Plan needs approval by the Project Board.
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which one of these is NOT a PRINCE2 Component?
A. Plans
B. Controls
C. Work Package
D. Configuration Management
Answer: C

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NO.24 What provision in Planning can be made for implementing Requests for Change?
A. Project and stage tolerances
B. Contingency plans
C. A Change Budget
D. Adding a contingency margin to estimates
Answer: C

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NO.25 In PRINCE2 what product is used to define the information that justifies the setting up,
continuation or termination of the project?
A. Project Initiation Document
B. Business Case
C. End Stage Approval
D. Project Brief
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which feature of PRINCE2 tells the Project Manager where a product is, what its status is and who is
working on it?
A. Work Package
B. Product Description
C. Checkpoint Report
D. Configuration Management
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of these is NOT a valid Risk Management action?
A. Prevention
B. Denial
C. Reduction
D. Transference
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which of these items does NOT involve the Project Board?
A. Exception Assessment
B. Highlight Reports
C. Project Closure
D. Work Package Authorisation
Answer: D

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NO.29 What is the first job carried out on receipt of a new Project Issue?
A. Allocation of priority
B. Logging
C. Decision on what type of issue
D. Impact Analysis
Answer: B

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NO.30 What name is given to the permissible deviation from a plan allowed without immediate reporting to
the Project Board?
A. Allowance
B. Contingency
C. Concession
D. Tolerance
Answer: D

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