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Code d'Examen: PRINCE2
Nom d'Examen: PRINCE2 (PRINCE2 Foundation)
Questions et réponses: 239 Q&As

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NO.1 Which part of a product lifespan is not part of a project life cycle in the eyes of PRINCE2?
A. The change-over to operational use of the product
B. Assessment of the value of the product after a period of use
C. The specification of the product
D. Finalisation of the business case
Answer: B

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NO.2 What other control is closely linked with configuration management?
A. Risk Management
B. Project Closure
C. Change Control
D. Project Initiation
Answer: C

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NO.3 How often does PRINCE2 recommend that open Project Issues should be reviewed?
A. Weekly
B. At Exception Assessments
C. At Checkpoint Meetings
D. On a regular basis
Answer: D

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NO.4 What environment does PRINCE2 assume?
A. A fixed-PRICE contract
B. A Customer/Supplier environment
C. A specialist environment
D. A third-party environment
Answer: B

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NO.5 If, after a Quality Review Follow-up Action, an error is still not resolved, what action should be taken?
A. An Exception Report is made
B. A Project Issue is raised
C. An Exception Memo is raised
D. The review is reconvened
Answer: B

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NO.6 What is the more common term used in PRINCE2 for"deliverable"?
A. Item
B. Package
C. Product
D. Component
Answer: C

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NO.7 Fill in the missing phrase from"a project is a management environment that is created for the purpose of
delivering one or more business products according to......"
A. TheCustomer'sNeds
B. An Agreed Contract
C. The Project Plan
D. A specified Business Case
Answer: D

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NO.8 In what sequence would the (a) Project Initiation Document, (b) the Project Mandate and (c) the Project
Brief appear in a PRINCE2 project?
A. a, b, c
B. b, c, a
C. c, a, b
D. c, b, a
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following is NOT a PRINCE2 definition of a project?
A. Has an organisation structure
B. Produces defined and measurable business products
C. Uses a defined amount of resources
D. Uses a defined set of techniques
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which one of these statements describes the true purpose of Acceptance Criteria?
A. A justification for undertaking the project based on estimated costs and anticipated benefits.
B. A measurable definition of what must be done for the final product to be acceptable to the Customer.
C. To provide a full and firm foundation for the initiation of a project.
D. To triger 'Starting up a Project'.
Answer: B

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NO.11 The configuration of the final deliverable of the project is
A. The sum total of its products
B. The interim products
C. Its product description
D. The single end-product
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which document lists the major products of a plan with their key delivery dates?
A. Product Outline
B. Product Breakdown Structure
C. Checkpoint Report
D. Product Checklist
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following statements is FALSE? Project Managers using PRINCE2 are encouraged to...
A. Establish terms of reference as a prerequisite to the start of the project
B. Use a defined structure for delegation, authority and communication
C. Divide the project into manageable stages for more accurate planning
D. Provide brief reports to management at regular meetings
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which would require the production of an Exception Report?
A. When a Project Issue is received
B. When a Project Board member raises a complaint
C. When a Request For Change or Off-Specification has been received
D. When the current forecasts for the end of the stage deviate beyond the delegated tolerance bounds
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following statements is FALSE?
A. Customer quality expectations should be discovered in the process
"Starting Up a Project"
B. Acompany'sQMSbecomespartofPRINCE2
C. PRINCE2 may form part of a company's QMS
D. The Stage Plan describes in detail how part of the Project Plan will be carried out
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of these processes does NOT trigger the Planning (PL) process?
A. Starting Up a Project (SU)
B. Initiating a Project (IP)
C. Managing Stage Boundaries (SB)
D. Controlling a Stage (CS)
Answer: D

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NO.17 In "Closing a Project" (CP) the project files are archived. What is the explanation given for this?
A. To provide useful lessons to future projects
B. Never throw anything away.
C. This material may be needed by Programme Management
D. To permit any future audit of the project's actions
Answer: D

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NO.18 In a Product Breakdown Structure what category of product is a Highlight Report?
A. Quality
B. Specialist
C. Technical
D. Management
Answer: D

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NO.19 Which statement is NOT a fundamental principle of" Closing a Project"? "A clear end to a project"
A. provides a useful opportunity to take stock of achievements
B. provides an opportunity to ensure that all unachieved goals and objectives are identified
C. provides the opportunity to evaluate achievement of all the expected benefits
D. is always more successful than the natural tendency to drift into operational Management
Answer: C

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NO.20 What other product is reviewed at the end of each stage apart from the Business Case and Project
Plan?
A. The Project Mandate
B. The Team Plan
C. The Risk Log
D. The Project Brief
Answer: C

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NO.21 Which product keeps track of Requests For Change.?
A. Request Log
B. Daily Log
C. Quality Log
D. Issue Log
Answer: D

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NO.22 Which of these statements is FALSE?
A. The Project Plan is an overview of the total project.
B. For each stage identified in the Project Plan, a Stage Plan is required.
C. An Exception Plan needs the approval of the next higher level of authority.
D. A Team Plan needs approval by the Project Board.
Answer: D

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NO.23 Which one of these is NOT a PRINCE2 Component?
A. Plans
B. Controls
C. Work Package
D. Configuration Management
Answer: C

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NO.24 What provision in Planning can be made for implementing Requests for Change?
A. Project and stage tolerances
B. Contingency plans
C. A Change Budget
D. Adding a contingency margin to estimates
Answer: C

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NO.25 In PRINCE2 what product is used to define the information that justifies the setting up,
continuation or termination of the project?
A. Project Initiation Document
B. Business Case
C. End Stage Approval
D. Project Brief
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which feature of PRINCE2 tells the Project Manager where a product is, what its status is and who is
working on it?
A. Work Package
B. Product Description
C. Checkpoint Report
D. Configuration Management
Answer: D

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NO.27 Which of these is NOT a valid Risk Management action?
A. Prevention
B. Denial
C. Reduction
D. Transference
Answer: B

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NO.28 Which of these items does NOT involve the Project Board?
A. Exception Assessment
B. Highlight Reports
C. Project Closure
D. Work Package Authorisation
Answer: D

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NO.29 What is the first job carried out on receipt of a new Project Issue?
A. Allocation of priority
B. Logging
C. Decision on what type of issue
D. Impact Analysis
Answer: B

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NO.30 What name is given to the permissible deviation from a plan allowed without immediate reporting to
the Project Board?
A. Allowance
B. Contingency
C. Concession
D. Tolerance
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: MSC-235
Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design and Deploy for MOTOTRBO Connect Plus Solutions BETA)
Questions et réponses: 130 Q&As

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NO.1 You are designing a 3 site Connect Plus system with 12 repeaters per site, no site controller
redundancy, and 3 control channel-capable repeaters at each site. The average number of
subscribers active at a site may approach 300 at any given time of the day. If this customer
experiences a site controller failure, what symptoms and subscriber behavior would you expect
immediately after the failure occurs?
A. All calls in progress at the site will drop. Subscribers will automatically fall back to digital
conventional, allowing users to utilize any of the site’s repeaters.
B. All calls in progress at the site will drop. All subscribers will attempt to roam to one of the other
sites.
C. Calls in progress will remain until one of the other control-channel capable repeaters assumes
the site controller’s role and then they will drop and register on the new controller.
D. Calls in progress will stay up until they complete normally. Subscribers on the control channel
will attempt to roam to one of the other sites.
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your customer operates a 4-site Connect Plus network. Two sites are adjacent to each other,
with
overlapping coverage. The other two sites respectively service two manufacturing plants that are
approximately 900 kilometers (559 miles) apart. There are approximately 30 talkgroups in the
network and 300 subscribers. When creating the Option Board codeplug for this customer’s
portable radios, which of the following is the best strategy to ensure smooth, logical operation?
A. Create a separate zone for each of the 4 sites to contain all the necessary contact and RSSI
settings.
B. Create a single Connect Plus zone that will address all of their necessary RSSI settings and
contact lists.
C. Create 2 Connect Plus zones to contain the different contacts and RSSI settings necessary
with this type of topology.
D. Create 3 separate Connect Plus zones to contain the different contacts and RSSI settings
necessary with this type of topology.
Answer: D

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NO.3 A Request for Proposal (RFP) for a single-site, operations-critical customer requires you to
respond to the following requirement: “...if the RF site equipment includes network switches,
describe the system behavior in the event of a site LAN switch failure.” Which of the following is
the BEST response to this requirement?
A. Redundant site networking equipment may be specified and configured so as to negate the
impact of a single site LAN switch failure. If redundant networking equipment is not installed,the
failure of a site LAN will not affect calls in-progress, but will make it impossible for subscribers to
register at the site.
B. If the single site LAN switch fails, the site master repeater will begin broadcasting failsoft
messages. All subscribers will revert to failsoft operation. The users may select any site repeater
on which to communicate conventionally.
C. Redundant site networking equipment may be specified and configured so as to negate the
impact of a single site LAN switch failure. If redundant networking equipment is not installed, the
failure of a site LAN switch will cause all calls to drop and the subscribers will attempt to roam to
an operational site.
D. In the case of a single-site system, Connect Plus does not utilize site LAN switches.
Answer: C

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NO.4 You are using the Network Manager to connect to a multisite system. Where can you view the
current state of connections to other sites in this multisite system?
A. Event Log Viewer
B. RealTime Display
C. Site Status Window
D. MultiSite Configuration Window
Answer: C

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NO.5 If there is a failure or reboot of a site controller, which of the following must you consider
regarding
Over The Air (OTA) file transfers (select TWO)?
A. Any transfers in progress at the time of the failure may have to be repeated.
B. The controller will have to be re-entitled for OTA operation after it is back online.
C. If the site controller recovers on a different Control Channel, transfers may have to be
reconfigured.
D. Any pending transfers on that controller will be lost and must be re-queued.
Answer: A,D

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NO.6 Your customer is a rail operator whose system covers approximately 125 kilometers (77 miles)
of
track. Trains travel rapidly, and the operator is using a location tracking application to update their
displayed location as frequently as possible. Location updates are critical, even if this means
putting voice calls into the busy queue. What can you do to ensure this behavior?
A. Make sure that RSSI settings are set to -ll3dBm or less for “RSSI Preferred” in the mobiles in
the trains. This will allow the proper sensitivity to make frequent location updates possible. Give
individual SU records a lower priority than any talkgroup priority.
B. Enhanced GPS must be enabled in the Repeaters and Subscribers. Give individual SU records
a higher priority than any talkgroup priority.
C. Call Sessions Configuration in the Network Manager should be set to 29 for the “Number of
Outbound Data Sessions Allowed” field and somewhat less for the Number of Voice/Inbound Data
sessions field. Give individual SU records a higher priority than any talkgroup priority.
D. Location updates should be optimized by enabling Advanced GPS with GPS Data Revert
channels.
Answer: C

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Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (SOA Technology Lab)
Questions et réponses: 40 Q&As

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NO.1 A partner organization has given you samples of XML documents retrieved from their product
information database. The three samples they have sent you are: Because they are an important partner,
you have agreed to write a service to accept XML documents in their format. However, they did not send
you a schema, so you are tasked with defining a schema that will correctly validate their documents.
Which of the following XML schemas will successfully validate each of the above XML document
fragments.?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: B

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NO.2 Your company has developed a PO service that allows customers to submit purchase order documents.
The message sent by a customer must be based on a predefined "purchaseOrder" element and the
message received by the customer is based on a "messageAcknowledgement" element. These two
elements are defined in the following two separate XML Schema definitions: The "purchaseOrder.xsd"
schema:
Note that these two schemas have different namespaces. That is because the "purchaseOrder.xsd"
schema is specific to purchase order-related functions, while the "ack.xsd" schema is more generic and
used for a variety of different purposes.
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: A

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NO.3 You are a consultant helping a large bank implement an on-line banking service for its customers. The
first operation you need to build is one that allows a customer to initiate a transfer of funds. You are
presented with the following sample XML document that represents the funds transfer information that
this operation needs to be able to receive:
<transfer>
< fromAccount>12345 </fromAccount>
< toAccount>44432 </toAccount>
<amount>2000</amount>
</transfer>
You are also provided with the following sample that shows that the response message sent by the
service needs to return a single element with text content:
<transferStatus>SUCCESS</transferStatus>
Which of the following XML schemas will validate the two samples shown above?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: C

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NO.4 Your company has developed a service that allows your customers to check the status of an order. The
schema for the service is shown here:
A new customer plans to use your service, but they want to test it first. They have asked for two sample
XML documents that show typical input and output message content. Which of the following pairs of XML
elements will validate with the schema shown above?
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Answer: D

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NO.5 Your developer is asked to build a Timesheet service that is able to receive timesheet submissions for
an internal payroll system. Service consumers need to be able to send this service request message
based on a root "employeeHours" element within the SOAP message body. The "employeeHourse"
element will contain "ernpID" and "hours" child elements. Furthermore, the service needs to return a
message based on a "response" element that contains "empID" and "status" child elements.
Your developer comes to you with the following WSDL definition: The only revision you suggest is that the
value of the "style" attribute of the "soap: binding" element be changed to "document" instead of "rpc".
Why?
A. With a value of "rpc", the root element within the SOAP message body will have the name of the
operation, and therefore cannot be named "employeeHours" as indicated by the requirements.
B. With a value of "rpc", the root element within the SOAP message body is unable to be part of an
operation that contains both "input" and "output" elements.
C. The value of "rpc" is not a valid value for the "style" attribute.
D. None of the above.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: C90-02A
Nom d'Examen: SOA Certified Professional (Cloud Technology Concepts)
Questions et réponses: 87 Q&As

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NO.1 A cloud service can be hosted by a physical server or a virtual server. When using the failover system
mechanism, the same cloud service cannot be hosted by more than one physical server.
Select the correct answer.
A.True
B.False
Answer: B

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NO.2 A failover system can increase ___________________and ___________________ by using
_______________ technology.?
Select the correct answer.
A.resources, usage thresholds, legacy
B.reliability, availability, clustering
C.flexibility, integrity, real-time
D.confidentiality, responsiveness, cloud
Answer: B

SOA Certified Professional   C90-02A   C90-02A examen

NO.3 Which of the following statements are true about the failover system mechanism?
SELECT ALL THAT APPLY
A.A failover system can only be used for legacy batch programs.
B.A failover system cannot span over more than one geographical region.
C.A failover system can be used to make redundant implementations of the same cloud service.
D.A failover system can be used to avoid introducing cloud services as single points of failure.
Answer: CD

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NO.4 A ___________________ is an IT resource that contains mapping logic capable of performing runtime
transformation to enable communication between a cloud service and different types of cloud service
consumers.
Select the correct answer.
A.failover system
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.ready-made environment
D.multi-device broker
Answer: D

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NO.5 A ___________________ is a mechanism used to temporarily persist certain types of data as an
alternative to caching the data in memory.
Select the correct answer.
A.resource replicator
B.state management database
C.failover system
D.multi-device broker
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms helps enable on-demand usage by allowing cloud
services to be configured to support higher usage thresholds automatically, and within pre-defined
parameters?
Select the correct answer.
A.pay-for-use monitor
B.automated scaling listener
C.multi-device broker
D.resource replication
Answer: B

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NO.7 A virtual server is a form of ____________________ software that emulates a(n)
____________________ computer.
Select the correct answer.
A.virtual monitoring, on-premise
B.virtual monitoring, cloud-based
C.virtualization, physical
D.virtualization, logical
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following is an IT resource that can be provided in a ready-made environment?
Select the correct answer.
A.database
B.development tool
C.virtual server
D.All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.9 __________________ represents the ability of a cloud platform to keep track of the usage of its IT
resources by cloud consumers, and is therefore directly related to the __________________ mechanism.
Select the correct answer.
A.Replicated usage, cloud monitor
B.Measured usage, pay-for-use monitor
C.Agent usage, on-premise monitor
D.None of the above.
Answer: B

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NO.10 A ____________________ is a pre-defined cloud-based platform comprised of a set of already installed
IT resources that can be used and customized by a cloud consumer.
Select the correct answer.
A.failover system
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.ready-made environment
D.multi-device broker
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following cloud computing mechanisms can exist as a service agent that monitors and
keeps track of communication between cloud service consumers and cloud services for load balancing
purposes?
Select the correct answer.
A.multi-device broker
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.resource replicator
D.automated scaling listener
Answer: D

SOA Certified Professional   C90-02A   C90-02A

NO.12 A hypervisor can independently manage and monitor the virtualization of multiple virtual servers, and is
therefore associated with the __________________ mechanism.
Select the correct answer.
A.pay-for-use monitor
B.automated scaling listener
C.multi-device broker
D.None of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.13 The ____________________ is a service agent that can measure the usage of a cloud-based IT
resource by a cloud consumer for billing purposes.
Select the correct answer.
A.automated scaling listener
B.pay-for-use monitor
C.multi-device broker
D.resource replicator
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following IT resources are examples of multi-device brokers?
Select the correct answer.
A.An XML gateway that performs runtime transformation of messaging protocols.
B.A cloud storage gateway that performs runtime transformation of cloud storage device protocols.
C.A middleware product that performs runtime transformation of XML schemas.
D.All of the above.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Assuming a cloud service is configured to support on-demand usage, which of the following cloud
computing mechanisms would the cloud provider need to use in order to keep track of what to charge
cloud consumers?
Select the correct answer.
A.on-demand usage listener
B.multi-device broker
C.resource billing replicator
D.None of the above.
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: L50-502
Nom d'Examen: LSI (LSI SVM5 Solutions Architect)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 Your customer has recently begun using hourly PiTs for rapid application recovery. The desire is to
implement a data retention plan where each hourly PiT is kept on disk until 8:00 PM. Four weeks?worth
the customer would like to keep a daily snapshot copy of the data for seven days. Also the customer
wants to keep four weeks worth of weekly views on a secondary, low cost array. The solution should
minimize disk utilization on the primary array. Which three tasks would you implement to accomplish this
goal? (Choose three.)
A. Create a multiCopy of the application data and keep seven copies.
B. Create a View on the most recent PiT each night at 8:00 PM and retain for seven days.
C. Create a multiCopy of the Sunday View to the second array and keep four copies.
D. Purge PiTs on the source volume at 8:00 PM to keep seven PiTs.
E. Use multiMigrate to move the Sunday View to the second array and keep four copies.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 You have a disaster recovery scenario where newly created SVM Views will be presented to an ESX
server or ESX cluster at a secondary site. To avoid importing the views as new volumes, which ESX
advanced setting should be enabled?
A. port retry
B. resignature
C. device reset
D. LUN reset
Answer: B

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NO.3 A customer would like to implement SVM into their current storage environment and has asked you to
provide a detailed overview of both the SVM and DPM architectures. Where would you suggest that they
locate the required information?
A. Host Compatibility Matrix
B. Deployment Guide for SVM 4
C. SVM User Guide
D. Configuration Knowledge Base for SVM 5
Answer: C

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NO.4 A customer is using SVM to provide five volumes to a Windows 2008 server. These volumes have
been converted to dynamic disks and striped using the OS. Which consideration should be met if the
customer would like to use PiTs and views to access this data from another server?
A. The data cannot be accessed from another host.
B. multiMigrate should be used to migrate the data to a single volume.
C. A consistency group should be defined for the five volumes.
D. The standard agent must be used to access the view.
Answer: C

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NO.5 A customer has an environment that includes existing VMware disks that must be imported into SVM.
VMware marks a signature on the volumes which identifies the controller WWNN and LUN ID. Which
statement describes what you need to take into account when migrating the VMware disks under SVM
control?
A. VMware will not resignature automatically.
B. VMware will present the same LUN ID after importing.
C. VMware will modify the DPM WWNN to match the array WWNN.
D. VMware resignaturing must be set correctly.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which storage arrays can be migrated under SVM 5 control.?
A. SAS storage array
B. iSCSI storage array
C. FC storage array
D. Infiniband storage array
Answer: C

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NO.7 You are implementing zoning for an SVM 5 environment. Which rule should you observe when zoning
servers with DPMs?
A. There should be no more than four paths per DPM to any one server.
B. There should be no more than two paths per DPM to any one server.
C. All servers and DPM front-end ports should reside in the same zone.
D. The servers should be zoned directly with the storage controllers.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Your customer is looking for a high availability solution for company-critical data with an RPO of 0.
Periodically the customer would like to verify the integrity of replicated data. You configure two SVM
domains on two sites and use synchronous multiMirror between the two sites. What are two methods to
verify the data? (Choose two.)
A. Create a PiT on the synchronous multiMirror group, create a view on the second synchronous mirror
job PiT and assign it to a host.
B. Use multiCopy for one of the synchronous multiMirror jobs and then assign the destination volume to a
host.
C. Create a PiT on the second synchronous multiMirror job, create a view for that PiT and assign it to a
host.
D. Create a PiT on the first synchronous multiMirror job, create a view for that PiT and assign it to a host.
Answer: A,C

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NO.9 You are deploying ESX servers with SVM. You have followed the recommended best practice and
have designed your front-end SAN to have redundant fabrics and allowed for both HBA initiator ports to
see both DPMs. You have created SVM volumes and have presented them to your ESX servers. After
performing an HBA rescan from an ESX server, how many paths should be available to each LUN?
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 16
Answer: B

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NO.10 A customer has an AIX high availability cluster multiprocessing (HACMP) environment and would like to
use SVM to provide additional storage to the cluster. Which consideration must be met to access the new
volumes?
A. The AIX light agent must be installed on all nodes.
B. The new volumes must be imported into a volume group.
C. The LSI failover driver must be installed on all nodes.
D. The MPIO driver must be disabled on all nodes.
Answer: A

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NO.11 Your customer wants to run backups at any time of the day, using snapshots of production data, leaving
production systems fully online and available during backups. Which SVM application would be used to
achieve their online backup requirement?
A. multiMigrate
B. multiMirror
C. multiView
D. SVM volume management
Answer: C

LSI   L50-502   L50-502

NO.12 Your customer would like to consolidate multiple storage arrays which are currently under-utilized. The
SAN is not currently managed by SVM. The customer desires the minimal impact to their applications.
Which two statements describe the process to consolidate the arrays under SVM? (Choose two.)
A. Import existing LUNs into SVM pools.
B. Use multiMigrate to move the volumes to the desired array.
C. Use asynchronous mirror to move the volumes to the desired array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the volumes to the desired array and remove SVM.
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 A retailer with a SQL database must pull statistics from a production database but would like to do so
without interfering with production work. The statistics are required by three different departments. Which
two methods could be used to do this? (Choose two.)
A. Use multiMigrate on the database volume with one job and assign the destination volume to the three
hosts.
B. Use multiMirror asynchronous on the database volume with three jobs and assign the jobs to the three
hosts.
C. Use multiView on the database volume to create a PiT; create three views for that PiT and assign it to
the three hosts.
D. Use multiCopy on the database volume with three jobs and assign each destination volume to the
three hosts.
Answer: C,D

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NO.14 You are trying to determine the optimal solution to meet the data recovery needs of a customer. What
will provide your customer with the smallest recovery time objective and array failure protection?
A. asynchronous multiMirror
B. multiView
C. multiCopy
D. synchronous multiMirror
Answer: D

LSI   L50-502   L50-502

NO.15 A financial institution has an Oracle application that is critical to its business. Which three factors will
enable you to assess how to provide high availability and recovery? (Choose three.)
A. application recovery time objective
B. application recovery point objective
C. distance between data centers
D. number of network adapters
E. distance between servers
Answer: A,B,C

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Code d'Examen: GPEN
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Certified Penetration Tester)
Questions et réponses: 384 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following enables an inventor to legally enforce his right to exclude others from using his
invention?
A. Patent
B. Spam
C. Phishing
D. Artistic license
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following are the scanning methods used in penetration testing?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Vulnerability
B. Port
C. Network
D. Services
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.3 Which of the following tools is used to verify the network structure packets and confirm that the packets
are constructed according to specification?
A. EtherApe
B. Snort decoder
C. AirSnort
D. snort_inline
Answer: B

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NO.4 Which of the following statements are true about MS-CHAPv2?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It is a connectionless protocol.
B. It can be replaced with EAP-TLS as the authentication mechanism for PPTP.
C. It provides an authenticator-controlled password change mechanism.
D. It is subject to offline dictionary attacks.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 Which of the following are the limitations for the cross site request forgery (CSRF) attack?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The target site should have limited lifetime authentication cookies.
B. The attacker must target a site that doesn't check the referrer header.
C. The target site should authenticate in GET and POST parameters, not only cookies.
D. The attacker must determine the right values for all the form inputs.
Answer: B,D

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NO.6 Which of the following is NOT an example of passive footprinting?
A. Scanning ports.
B. Analyzing job requirements.
C. Performing the whois query.
D. Querying the search engine.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following ports will you scan to search for SNMP enabled devices in the network?
A. 163
B. 123
C. 151
D. 161
Answer: D

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NO.8 Which of the following statements are true about WPA?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. WPA-PSK converts the passphrase into a 256-bit key.
B. WPA provides better security than WEP.
C. WPA-PSK requires a user to enter an 8-character to 63-character passphrase into a wireles s client.
D. Shared-key WPA is vulnerable to password cracking attacks if a weak passphrase is used.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.9 You have inserted a Trojan on your friend's computer and you want to put it in the startup so that
whenever the computer reboots the Trojan will start to run on the startup. Which of the following registry
entries will you edit to accomplish the task?
A. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Start
B. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Auto
C. HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\Startup
D.HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows\CurrentVersion\RunServices
Answer: D

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NO.10 You work as a Network Administrator for Infosec Inc. Nowadays, you are facing an unauthorized
access in your Wi-Fi network. Therefore, you analyze a log that has been recorded by your favorite sniffer,
Ethereal. You are able to discover the cause of the unauthorized access after noticing the following string
in the log file:
(Wlan.fc.type_subtype eq 32 and llc.oui eq 0x00601d and llc.pid eq 0x0001)
When you find All your 802.11b are belong to us as the payload string, you are convinced about which tool
is being used for the unauthorized access. Which of the following tools have you ascertained?
A. AirSnort
B. Kismet
C. AiroPeek
D. NetStumbler
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following tools can be used to read NetStumbler's collected data files and present street
maps showing the logged WAPs as icons, whose color and shape indicates WEP mode and signal
strength?
A. NetStumbler
B. StumbVerter
C. WEPcrack
D. Kismet
Answer: B

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NO.12 Which of the following tools can be used to perform brute force attack on a remote database?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. FindSA
B. SQLDict
C. nmap
D. SQLBF
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.13 An executive in your company reports odd behavior on her PDA. After investigation you discover that a
trusted device is actually copying data off the PDA. The executive tells you that the behavior started
shortly after accepting an e-business card from an unknown person. What type of attack is this?
A. Session Hijacking
B. PDA Hijacking
C. Privilege Escalation
D. Bluesnarfing
Answer: D

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NO.14 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He copies the whole structure of the We-are-secure Web site to the local disk
and obtains all the files on the Web site. Which of the following techniques is he using to accomplish his
task?
A. TCP FTP proxy scanning
B. Eavesdropping
C. Web ripping
D. Fingerprinting
Answer: C

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NO.15 You want to integrate the Nikto tool with nessus vulnerability scanner. Which of the following steps will
you take to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Restart nessusd service.
B. Place nikto.pl file in the /var/www directory.
C. Place nikto.pl file in the /etc/nessus directory.
D. Place the directory containing nikto.pl in root's PATH environment variable.
Answer: A,D

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NO.16 Which of the following options holds the strongest password?
A. california
B. $#164aviD

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Code d'Examen: G2700
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Certified ISO-2700 Specialist Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 453 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is a Restrict Anonymous registry value that allows users with explicit
anonymous permissions?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 1
D. 0
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which of the following is the designing phase of the ISMS?
A. Check
B. Plan
C. Act
D. Do
Answer: B

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NO.3 Mark works as a System Administrator for uCertify Inc. He is responsible for securing the network of
the organization. He is configuring some of the advanced features of the Windows firewall so that he can
block the client machine from responding to pings. Which of the following advanced setting types should
Mark change for accomplishing the task?
A. ICMP
B. SNMP
C. UDP
D. SMTP
Answer: A

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NO.4 A project plan includes the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS) and cost estimates. Which of the following
are the parts of a project plan?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Risk identification
B. Security Threat
C. Project schedule
D. Team members list
E. Risk analysis
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.5 You work as an Information Security Officer for uCertify Inc. You need to create an asset management
plan differentiating fixed assets from inventory items. How will you differentiate assets from inventory
items?
A. Inventory items are sold.
B. Assets are temporary usually.
C. Inventory items are permanent.
D. Assets cannot be used.
Answer: A

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NO.6 The disciplined and structured process, that integrates information security and risk management
activities into the System Development Life Cycle, is provided by the risk management framework.
Choose the appropriate RMF steps.
A.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You work as a Network Administrator for uCertify Inc. The organization has constructed a cafeteria for
their employees and you are responsible to select the access control method for the cafeteria.
There are a few conditions for giving access to the employees, which are as follows:
1. Top level management can get access any time.
2. Staff members can get access during the specified hours.
3. Guests can get access only in working hours.
Which of the following access control methods is suitable to accomplish the task?
A. Discretionary access control
B. Lattice-based access control
C. Attribute-based access control
D. Rule-based access control
Answer: D

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NO.8 Mark works as a Network Security Administrator for uCertify Inc. An employee of the organization
comes to Mark and tells him that a few months ago, the employee had filled an online bank form due to
some account related work. Today, when again visiting the site, the employee finds that some of his
personal information is still being displayed in the webpage. Which of the following types of cookies
should be disabled by Mark to resolve the issue?
A. Session
B. Temporary
C. Secure
D. Persistent
Answer: D

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NO.9 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
________ is a powerful and low-interaction open source honeypot.
Answer: Honeyd

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NO.10 Which of the following should be considered while calculating the costs of the outage?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Sales aspect of the business
B. Cost of low productivity
C. Innovations in electronic funds transfer
D. Cost of lost income from missed sales
Answer: B,D

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NO.11 You work as an Information Security Manager for uCertify Inc. You are working on communication and
organization management. You need to create the documentation on change management.
Which of the following are the main objectives of change management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Minimal disruption of services
B. Reduction of inventory in accordance with revenue
C. Economic utilization of resources involved in the change
D. Reduction in back-out activities
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase.
_________accord describes the minimum regulatory capital to be allocated by each bank based on its
risk profile of assets.
Answer: Basel ll

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NO.13 Which of the following is used for secure financial transactions over the Internet?
A. ATM
B. VPN
C. SSL
D. SET
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following administrative policy controls is usually associated with government
classifications of materials and the clearances of individuals to access those materials?
A. Separation of Duties
B. Due Care
C. Acceptable Use
D. Need to Know
Answer: D

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NO.15 Qualitative risk analysis includes judgment, intuition, and experience. Which of the following methods
are used to perform qualitative risk analysis?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Egress filtering
B. Checklists
C. Delphi technique
D. Brainstorming
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.16 Which of the following statements are true about security risks?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. These are considered as an indicator of threats coupled with vulnerability.
B. These can be removed completely by taking proper actions.
C. These can be mitigated by reviewing and taking responsible actions based on possible risks.
D. These can be analyzed and measured by the risk analysis process.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.17 Single Loss Expectancy (SLE) represents an organization's loss from a single threat. Which of the
following formulas best describes the Single Loss Expectancy (SLE)?
A. SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Exposure Factor (EF)
B. SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Exposure Factor (EF)
C. SLE = Annualized Loss Expectancy (ALE) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
D. SLE = Asset Value (AV) * Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO)
Answer: A

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NO.18 You work as an Information Security Manager for uCertify Inc. You need to make the
documentation on change management. What are the advantages of change management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Improved productivity of users due to more stable and better IT services
B. Improved IT personnel productivity, since there is a reduced number of urgent changes and a back-out
of erroneous changes
C. Improved adverse impact of changes on the quality of IT services
D. Increased ability to absorb frequent changes without making an unstable IT environment
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.19 You work as an Information Security Manager for uCertify Inc. You are working on the
documentation of control A.10.1.1. What is the purpose of control A.10.1.1.?
A. It is concerned with the documentation of the human resource security to make recruitments clear to
the organization.
B. It is concerned with the documentation of the supply chain management.
C. It is concerned with the documentation of operating procedures to ensure the correct and secure use of
information processing facilities.
D. It is concerned with the documentation of the disaster recovery management to ensure proper backup
technologies.
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following is a fast-emerging global sector that advises individuals and corporations on
how to apply the highest ethical standards to every aspect of their business?
A. Service Capacity Management (SCM)
B. Business Capacity Management (BCM)
C. Resource Capacity Management (RCM)
D. Integrity Management Consulting
Answer: D

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NO.21 Which of the following are the basics of Business Continuity Management?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Implementation of a risk assessment technique to identify the causes and consequences of failures
B. Regular checking of business continuity plans
C. Identification of authentication techniques according to the requirements
D. Identification of human resources according to the requirements
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.22 You work as the Human Resource Manager for uCertify Inc. You need to recruit some candidates for
the marketing department of the organization. Which of the following should be defined to the new
employees of the organization before they have joined?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Marketing tips and tricks
B. Organization's network topology
C. Job roles
D. Organization's security policy
Answer: C,D

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NO.23 Mark works as an Office Assistant for uCertify Inc. He is responsible for managing office documents.
Today, after opening a word document, Mark noticed that the other opened documents are closed
suddenly. After reopening those documents, Mark found some modifications in the documents. He
contacted his Security Administrator and came to know that there is a virus program installed in the
operating system. Which of the following types of virus has attacked the operating system?
A. Data file
B. Macro
C. Polymorphic
D. Boot sector
Answer: A

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NO.24 Which of the following phases of the PDCA model is the monitoring and controlling phase of the
Information Security Management System (ISMS)?
A. Check
B. Plan
C. Do
D. Act
Answer: A

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NO.25 Rick works as a Computer Forensic Investigator for BlueWells Inc. He has been informed that some
confidential information is being leaked out by an employee of the company. Rick suspects that someone
is sending the information through email. He checks the emails sent by some employees to other
networks. Rick finds out that Sam, an employee of the Sales department, is continuously sending text files
that contain special symbols, graphics, and signs. Rick suspects that Sam is using the Steganography
technique to send data in a disguised form. Which of the following techniques is Sam using?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Linguistic steganography
B. Text Semagrams
C. Technical steganography
D. Perceptual masking
Answer: A,B

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NO.26 You work as a Security Administrator for uCertify Inc. You have been assigned the task to verify the
identity of the employees recruited in your organization. Which of the following components of security
deals with an employee's verification in the organization?
A. Network Security
B. Physical security
C. Access security
D. Human resource security
Answer: D

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NO.27 Mark works as a Network Security Administrator for uCertify Inc. He has been assigned the task of
installing a MySQL server. Mark wants to monitor only the data that is directed to or originating from the
server and he also wants to monitor running processes, file system access and integrity, and user logins
for identifying malicious activities. Which of the following intrusion detection techniques will Mark use to
accomplish the task?
A. Network-based IDS
B. Signature-based IDS
C. Anomaly-based IDS
D. Host-based IDS
Answer: D

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NO.28 Which of the following controls are administrative in nature?
A. Directive controls
B. Recovery controls
C. Preventive controls
D. Detective controls
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which of the following are the exceptions of the Data Protection Act?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Section 36 - Domestic purposes
B. Section 28 - National security
C. Section 55 - Unlawful obtaining of personal data
D. Section 29 - Crime and taxation
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.30 Which of the following are the uses of cryptography as defined in a policy document?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Backup
B. Control of keys
C. Applications supporting cryptography
D. Recovery
Answer: A,B,C

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