2014年4月30日星期三

L'avènement de la certification Oracle pratique d'examen 1Z0-869 questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-869
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Java Mobile Edition 1 Mobile Application Developer Certified Professional Exam)
Questions et réponses: 340 Q&As

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NO.1 Which two are true about class file verification as defined by the CLDC specification? (Choose two.)
A. Verification is NOT required.
B. Verification can use a custom implementation.
C. Verification is completed at compile time and no further verification is necessary.
D. Verification can use the same implementation as defined in the JVM specification.
Answer: B,D

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NO.2 Given the push connection string:
MIDlet-Push-1: socket://:79, com.sun.example.SampleChat, 192.3?.?.*
Which two addresses are allowed to push connection notifications to the application? (Choose two.)
A. 192.31.101.1
B. 192.32.1.101
C. 192.310.101.1
D. 192.3.1.101
E. 192.31.1.1
F. 192.310.10.1
Answer: B,E

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NO.3 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button.
Place the appropriate platform label on the class name. If the class exists in both CLDC and J2SE,
choose the "Exists in BOTH..." option, regardless of whether the package names are different.
Answer:

NO.4 Which three statements are true regarding the handling of wireless connections? (Choose three.)
A. Devices can only support one HttpConnection at a time; therefore, network access from
multiple threads must be serialized.
B. The connection could unexpectedly terminate while processing the input or output streams.
C. Performing network operations on the same thread used by the display is likely to block
refreshes of the display until the network operations complete.
D. A network connection could interfere with other services on the device, such as the ability to receive
phone calls or SMS on a phone.
E. Network connections should never be performed on a separate thread, so problems can be handled
quickly.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.5 How would a MIDlet that uses a GameCanvas efficiently update only a small region of the screen, from
the data in the off-screen buffer?
A. call flushGraphics(int, int, int, int) that specifies the region to be flushed
B. call serviceRepaints() and set a clip region on the Graphics object in paint()
C. Pixels that are NOT to be flushed should be made transparent.
D. write extra code to coalesce the flushGraphics() calls over many loops into one call
Answer: A

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NO.6 A Player plays a sound after start() is called. Which is the most efficient way to pause the playback so
that it may be started as soon as possible when required?
A. call setRate(0) on the player
B. call stop() on the player
C. call close() on the player
D. call System.gc() to collect those resources marked for garbage collection
Answer: B

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NO.7 Given:
10. //...
20. try {
21. Hashtable table = new Hashtable();
22. for (;;) table.put(new Object(), new Object());
23. } catch (OutOfMemoryException e) {
24. Display.getDisplay().setCurrent(new Alert("Out of Memory!"));
25. }
26. //...
Which is true?
A. Out of Memory! is printed to the system console.
B. An exception is thrown at runtime but there is no guarantee an alert will be shown to the user.
C. Compilation fails.
D. The program hangs at line 22.
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which two are true for List? (Choose two.)
A. You can add Command objects to a List without registering a CommandListener.
B. Images and text in a List CANNOT be changed once the List is created.
C. Traversing and scrolling in a List causes events that can be programmatically detected.
D. A CommandListener must be registered for the application to recognize user selections in a List.
Answer: A,D

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NO.9 Given:
10. MessageConnection conn;
11.
12. public void startApp() {
13. try {
14. conn = (MessageConnection) Connector.open("cbs://:3382");
15. //...
17. } catch (Exception e) {
18. //...
20. }
21. }
22.
30. public void run() {
31. Message msg = conn.receive();
32. //...
40. conn.send(msg);
41. }
What is the result?
A. An error at line 40 causes an exception at runtime.
B. An error at line 14 causes compile to fail.
C. An error at line 31 causes an exception at runtime.
D. The code successfully sends a message.
E. An error at line 14 causes an exception at runtime.
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which method is initially called when the MIDlet starts in response to a push notification?
A. PushRegistry.listConnections()
B. PushRegistry.notifyIncomingConnection()
C. MIDlet.startApp()
D. MIDlet.notifyApp()
E. MIDlet.pushApp()
F. MIDlet.resumeRequest()
Answer: C

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NO.11 Click the Exhibit button.
NewsMIDlet and CalendarMIDlet are in different MIDlet suites. Neither has any static push registrations.
Suppose NewsMIDlet registers dynamically for datagram push notifications on port 79.
What happens if a method CalendarMIDlet.init() attempts to open a UDPDatagramConnection on port
79?
A. init() succeeds without user confirmation, and removes NewsMIDlet's registration for datagram push
connections.
B. init() fails to open the connection.
C. init() succeeds only with user confirmation.
D. init() succeeds without user confirmation, and leaves untouched NewsMIDlet's registration for
datagram push connections.
Answer: B

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NO.12 A MIDlet suite is signed using X.509 PKI. Which encoding format must be used for the certificate
entries in the JAD file?
A. yEnc
B. binary
C. none
D. base64
Answer: D

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
Given the GameCanvas code:
10. public void run() {
11. try {
12. Graphics g = getGraphics();
13. Image dog = Image.createImage("/dog.png");
14. Sprite s = new Sprite(dog, 98, 88);
15. s.setPosition(0,0);
16. while (gameActive) {
17. s.setFrame(0);
18. s.paint(g);
19. flushGraphics();
20. s.setFrame(1);
21. s.paint(g);
22. flushGraphics();
23. }
24. } catch (Exception ex) {
25. //...
31. }
32. }
Assuming that gameActive is true, and that run() is called as a result of a new thread's start() invocation,
what is the result?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime because of an error with the arguments to the Sprite
constructor.
B. An IndexOutOfBoundsException occurs due to an error in line 17 or line 20.
C. The dog on the left side of the image file appears on the display, but the dog on the right side is never
seen.
D. Compilation fails because Sprite does NOT have a paint(Graphics g) method.
E. An animation appears that continuously cycles between the two versions of the dog.
Answer: E

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NO.14 A suite is signed with a X.509 PKI certificate. The root certificate is not present in the device's keystore.
What is the installation result?
A. The JAD file is rejected. Installation fails.
B. The JAD file is rejected. It installs in the untrusted domain.
C. Authentication fails. It installs in the untrusted domain.
D. Authentication fails. Installation fails.
Answer: D

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
What is the result?
A. myForm contains the string "run count: 2".
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. myForm contains the string "run count: 0".
D. myForm contains the string "run count: 1".
E. myForm contains the string "waiting...".
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two methods are available in both the low-level and high-level APIs? (Choose two.)
A. getLayout()
B. getTitle()
C. isShown()
D. setFullScreenMode()
Answer: B,C

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NO.17 Given:
10. //...
20. int[] foo = new int[10000];
21. foo = null;
22. System.gc();
23. //...
Which is true once the program execution reaches line 23?
A. The garbage collector suspends the program until more memory becomes available.
B. The garbage collector CANNOT reclaim the memory allocated to foo because the reference is
nulled out.
C. The garbage collector is triggered and memory is guaranteed to be reclaimed.
D. The garbage collector is triggered but there are no guarantees that any memory has been reclaimed.
Answer: D

Oracle   certification 1Z0-869   1Z0-869   certification 1Z0-869

NO.18 Given:
15. String addr = "sms://+14155557296";
16. MessageConnection conn
17. = (MessageConnection) Connector.open(addr);
18. // insert code here
19. message.setPayloadData(imageBytes);
Assume imageBytes is a valid byte array.
Which statement, inserted at line 18, causes the rest of the code fragment to compile correctly?
A. Message message = new BinaryMessage();
B. BinaryMessage message = (BinaryMessage)
conn.newMessage(MessageConnection.BINARY_MESSAGE);
C. Message message = conn.newMessage(MessageConnection.BINARY_MESSAGE);
D. BinaryMessage message = new BinaryMessage();
Answer: B

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NO.19 Which two are true regarding error handling for classes that exist in both CLDC and J2SE? (Choose
two.)
A. The set of error classes is essentially the same in CLDC and J2SE.
B. The set of error classes is much reduced in CLDC to help reduce the overhead of the JVM.
C. If a class throws an error in CLDC, it should throw the same error as in J2SE or its nearest superclass.
D. There is no correspondence between the errors defined by CLDC and J2SE because the needs of
CLDC and J2SE are so different.
Answer: B,C

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NO.20 Which is true for Item?
A. The same Command may occur on more than one Item.
B. The same Item may be appended to more than one Form at the same time.
C. When adding a Command to an Item, specifying a command type other than Command.ITEM results
in a compilation failure.
D. Minimum and preferred size CANNOT be changed once an Item is created.
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which three are true.? (Choose three.)
A. A MIDlet suite consists of only one JAR file.
B. Different MIDlet suites can share data with each other.
C. A MIDlet suite can have more than one class that extends the MIDlet class.
D. A MIDlet suite is an array of MIDlet objects.
E. The names of MIDlet classes that belong to different MIDlet suites must be different.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.22 Which two are true about record stores? (Choose two.)
A. If two MIDlet suites each have a record store with the same name, then those suites CANNOT share
those identically named record stores.
B. A MIDlet CANNOT access a given record store using multiple simultaneous threads.
C. Record store names are case sensitive.
D. The API does NOT provide locking operations for record stores.
E. MIDlet suites that contain shared record stores are identified by using attributes from that suite's JAR
file.
Answer: C,D

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NO.23 Which JAD attribute must be present to begin the MIDlet suite authentication process using X.509
PKI?
A. MIDlet-Permission
B. MIDlet-Jar-RSA-SHA1
C. MIDlet-Certificate-n-m
D. MIDlet-Permission-Opt
Answer: B

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NO.24 DRAG DROP
Click the Task button. Place each player state next to its description.
Answer:

NO.25 obscure is a content type unsupported on a device that executes:
10. String locator = "http://foobar.sun.com/content.obscure";
11. Player player = Manager.createPlayer(locator);
Which is true?
A. The file is interpreted as an HTML file.
B. An exception is thrown at runtime.
C. The file is interpreted as an ASCII file.
D. player is set to null.
Answer: B

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NO.26 What is the minimum number of received SMS messages that a JTWI device must be able to
concatenate?
A. 5
B. 32
C. 10
D. 3
E. no minimum
Answer: D

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NO.27 Click the Exhibit button.
Which two are true assuming this method is in a MIDlet? (Choose two.)
A. The Chocolate Prefs choice is never displayed to the user.
B. Compilation fails due to a problem with code related to event handling.
C. The text "You made a choice" is displayed immediately after the user makes a selection.
D. The user can select more than one type of chocolate.
E. An exception occurs at runtime due to a problem related to the event handling code.
F. Anonymous inner classes must NOT be used as event handlers within a MIDlet.
Answer: C,D

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NO.28 Given:
21. TextField tf = new TextField("Memo", "", 50, TextField.ANY);
22. DateField df = new DateField("Date", DateField.DATE_TIME);
23. Form fm = new Form("Form demo");
24. Command cmCount = new Command("Word count", Command.ITEM, 1);
25. Command cmExit = new Command("Exit", Command.EXIT, 1);
26.
27. tf.addCommand(cmCount);
28. fm.append(df);
29. fm.append(tf);
30. fm.addCommand(cmExit);
31. fm.setCommandListener(this);
Which is true?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. The cmCount and cmExit commands is always available on fm, regardless of which Item is active.
C. Compilation fails.
D. The cmCount command is available only when tf is the active Item.
E. The cmExit command is available only when df is the active Item.
Answer: D

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NO.29 A MIDlet has entered the paused state. Which is a valid action to attempt to make it active?
A. The MIDlet cannot revert back to the active state.
B. The MIDlet calls resumeRequest() through a timer.
C. The MIDlet calls its own startApp() method.
D. The MIDlet has to wait quietly to be rescheduled.
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which two are true about errors and exceptions in a CLDC-compliant virtual machine? (Choose two.)
A. A CLDC-compliant virtual machine must NOT throw a VirtualMachineError.
B. Developers are NOT allowed to handle errors.
C. Developers do NOT receive asynchronous exceptions from a CLDC-compliant virtual machine.
D. Developers must throw only checked (non-runtime) exceptions.
E. Rather than throwing the Error class specified by the Java Language Specification, the
CLDC-compliant virtual machine may throw a CLDC-supported superclass.
Answer: C,E

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-877
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Solaris 10 System Administrator Certified Professional Exam, Part I)
Questions et réponses: 302 Q&As

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NO.1 A full backup of the file system mounted on /export/home has been created. As root, an
interactive restore of the /export/home/usercb/.profile file with the /var/tmp directory as the
current working directory is being performed. The end of the restore asks "set owner/mode for '.'?
[yn]", and answer y is selected to set the modes accordingly. Which statement describes the effect?
A. The owner and mode of /var/tmp are set equal to the owner and mode of /export/home before
the backup (as stored on tape).
B. The owner and mode of /export/home stored on the backup tape are updated with the current
owner and mode values of /export/home.
C. The owner and mode of /export/home are set equal to the owner and mode of /export/home
before the backup (as stored on tape).
D. The owner and mode of /var/tmp/usercb are set equal to the current owner and mode of
/export/home/usercb.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Which three FORTH Monitor commands allow you to boot a SPARC-based system? (Choose
three.)
A. ok boot net
B. ok reboot
C. ok boot net:rarp
D. ok boot -as cdrom
E. ok boot ip=192.168.1.1
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 You have been directed to install a server in a secure environment where all unnecessary
network services must be disabled, except for sshd. During the installation of the Solaris OS, you
setup the system to be Secure by Default. Which three describe how network services will be
configured on the newly installed server? (Choose three.)
A. SNMP - enabled for remote clients
B. syslogd - limit to local connections
C. rpcbind - limit to local connections
D. sendmail - limit to local connections
E. syslogd - enabled for remote clients
F. rpcbind - enabled for remote clients
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.4 There is a requirement to create a script that backs up the /export/project file system to the
default tape drive for five consecutive nights. The file system is 2 gigabytes, and all five night's
backups fit on the tape. What command in the script achieves this?
A. ufsdump 0u export/home
B. ufsdump 0uf /dev/rmt/ 0 /export/project
C. ufsdump 0uf /export/project /dev/rmt/ 0
D. ufsdump 0uf /dev/rmt/ 0n /export/project
Answer: D

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NO.5 There is a problem on a SPARC-based system that has several permanent, customized device
aliases. The system's use of these aliases needs to be temporarily disabled, so that when the
problem is cleared, they can be enabled without having to redefine them. Which sequence of OBP
commands will temporarily disable the customized device aliases defined on the system?
A. use-nvramrc=falsereset
B. use-nvramrc?=falsereset
C. setenv use-nvramrc? Falsereset
D. setenv use-nvramrc?=falsereset
Answer: C

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NO.6 Given:
# metadb -s clones -i flags first blk block count a m luo 16 8192 /dev/dsk/c4t1d0s7 r - replica does
not have device relocation information o - replica active prior to last mddb configuration change u -
replica is up to date l - locator for this replica was read successfully c - replica's location was in
/etc/lvm/mddb.cf p - replica's location was patched in kernel m - replica is master, this is replica
selected as input W - replica has device write errors a - replica is active, commits are occurring to
this replica M - replica had problem with master blocks D - replica had problem with data blocks F -
replica had format problems S - replica is too small to hold current data base R - replica had device
read errors
# metastat -ac
clones/d30 p 5.0GB c4t1d0s0 clones/d20 p 5.0GB c4t1d0s0 clones/d10 p 5.0GB c4t1d0s0
Which two represent the features of Solaris Volume Manager software configured on this system?
(Choose two.)
A. mirrored volumes
B. striped volumes
C. soft partitions
D. logical volumes
Answer: C,D

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NO.7 In which two conditions is it NOT possible to perform a snapshot of a file system? (Choose
two.)
A. The file system is in use by system accounting.
B. The file system is a multi-terabyte file system.
C. The file system is used as backing store by real-time applications.
D. The backing store file is located on a different file system from the source file system.
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 You have installed a package called SUNWvts onto your system. Where is the information
about every file and directory contained in this package stored?
A. /var/sadm/messages
B. In your home directory.
C. /var/spool/SUNWvts
D. /var/sadm/install/contents
E. /var/adm/installed/contents
F. /etc/default/installed/packages/information
Answer: D

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NO.9 A new service named banner needs to be incorporated into SMF. The appropriate entries are
placed in the milestones where this service is stopped and started and the service scripts are in the
correct locations.
Which command incorporates the banner service into SMF?
A. svccfg import /var/svc/manifest/site/banner-smf.xml
B. svccfg add /var/svc/manifest/site/banner-smf.xml
C. svcadm import /var/svc/manifest/site/banner-smf.xml
D. svcadm add /var/svc/manifest/site/banner-smf-xml
Answer: A

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NO.10 You have a SPARC server with two SCSI drives. Each drive has an installation of Solaris 10 and
both drives are identical. The system currently boots from the first SCSI disk drive, but the first SCSI
drive has failed. You try to boot the system from the second SCSI disk drive, but it wonboots from
the first SCSI disk drive, but the first SCSI drive has failed. You try to boot the system from the
second SCSI disk drive, but it won? boot. What do you need to do to boot to the second SCSI drive?
A. Select the second SCSI drive during bootup; once booted to the second drive, mount and copy
the /etc/vfstab file to the boot disk.
B. Select the second SCSI drive during bootup; once booted to the second drive, mount and fix the
/etc/vfstab file on the boot disk.
C. Install a bootblock onto the second SCSI drive; select the second SCSI drive during bootup; once
booted to the second drive, mount and fix the /etc/vfstab file on the boot disk.
D. Boot from DVD to get into a single user shell; mount and fix the /etc/vfstab file on the boot drive.
Answer: D

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NO.11 You need to set up a cron job that will run the /usr/bin/banner command to display the
message System Backups tonight in a console window at 5:00 P .M. each Thursday. Which is the
correct cron table entry?
A. 0 5 * * 5 /usr/bin/banner "System Backups tonight" > /dev/console
B. 0 5 * * 4 /usr/bin/banner "System Backups tonight" > /dev/console
C. 0 17 * * 5 /usr/bin/banner "System Backups tonight" > /dev/console
D. 0 17 * * 4 /usr/bin/banner "System Backups tonight" > /dev/console
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-877   1Z0-877   1Z0-877 examen

NO.12 You are setting up a Sun server with two internal SATA disk drives. You have also installed two
PCI SCSI controllers, and have installed four SCSI disk drives on each controller. Now you want to
check that all of the hardware is configured properly and that all of the hard drives are visible by the
system. Which Open Boot command(s) are used to verify that all of the drives are accessible and
that the server is able to identify all of the disk drives?
A. probe-all
B. sifting probe
C. probe-scsi followed by probe-ide
D. probe-scsi-all followed by probe-ide-all
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z0-877   1Z0-877   1Z0-877 examen

NO.13 A server has not had any changes made to the configuration of the standard system login
accounts. It has a number of tape devices attached to it. The server is the only system on the local
network that has tape devices. A file must be configured to allow backups. Which file must be
correctly configured on the system with the tape devices attached to enable the other system to
successfully perform its backup?
A. /.rhosts
B. /etc/hosts.equiv
C. /etc/rmt/tape.conf
D. /etc/hostname.rmt0
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z0-877 examen   1Z0-877 examen   1Z0-877

NO.14 You are going to install a remote system using a WAN boot installation. Which two items are
true of a WAN boot and must be part of your pre-installation checklist? (Choose two.)
A. WAN boot is supported on machines with SPARC and x86 CPUs.
B. You cannot use WAN boot on machines running the Solaris OS for x86 platforms.
C. A CDROM is required to access the wanboot program and WAN boot miniroot.
D. The system must have WAN boot support in the OBP or PXE support in the BIOS.
E. An HTTP server must be available on the network.
Answer: B,E

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NO.15 The boot disk on your x86-based server has been corrupted and you just finished restoring the
root (/) file system to c1d0. Which describes the command(s) that you will use to install the GRUB
programs from the Solaris OS DVD?
A. /usr/sbin/installboot /usr/platform/`uname \ -i`/lib/fs/ufs/bootblk /dev/rdsk/c1d0s0
B. /usr/sbin/installboot /dev/dsk/c1d0s0 /a /sbin/installgrub /a/boot/grub/stage1
/a/boot/grub/stage2 \ /dev/rdsk/c1d0s0
C. /sbin/installgrub /boot/grub/stage1 /boot/grub/stage2 /dev/rdsk/c1d0s0
D. /usr/sbin/installboot /boot/grub/stage1 /boot/grub/stage2 \ /dev/rdsk/c1d0s0
E. /usr/sbin/mount /dev/dsk/c1d0s0 /a; /sbin/installgrub \ /a/boot/grub/stage1
/a/boot/grub/stage2 /dev/rdsk/c1d0s0
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 1Z1-451
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle SOA Foundation Practitioner)
Questions et réponses: 120 Q&As

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NO.1 Service component architecture (SCA) is set of specifications for ____________, ____________
and ____________.
A. Implementing applications based on reusability.
B. Implementing business applications using BBEL.
C. A programming model for building applications based on service on service oriented architecture.
D. Composition of services and creation of service components including the reuse of existing services.
E. Implementing procedural models to built software applications.
Answer: A,C,D

certification Oracle   1Z1-451   1Z1-451   1Z1-451 examen   certification 1Z1-451

NO.2 You are using Oracle jdeveloper 11g composite editor tool to build a composite application.
Which service lime will you use to define your interfaces to the composite?
A. Reference services lane.
B. Exposed services lane.
C. External services lane.
D. Internal services lane.
Answer: B

certification Oracle   certification 1Z1-451   1Z1-451   1Z1-451

NO.3 Human task service prevents tasks to users via which channels? (Choose two.)
A. Oracle BPM wordlist application.
B. Oracle forms based notification.
C. Actionable notification sent via sms.
D. Actionable notification sent via Email.
Answer: A,D

Oracle examen   1Z1-451   1Z1-451 examen   1Z1-451   1Z1-451

NO.4 A BPL process uses to invokes to insert data into two Oracle database tables the first invokes inserts
data into master table and the second invokes insert data into detail table?
Identify the statement that will undo both transactions by throwing a fault if either one of the transaction
faults?
A. <throw name- throw
fault name bpebrsqlexception />
B. <throw name- throw
fault name bpetxcrollback />
C. <throw name- throw
fault name bpetxnuntime fault />
D. <throw name- throw
fault name bpetxfault />
Answer: A

Oracle examen   1Z1-451   certification 1Z1-451   1Z1-451 examen

NO.5 Your Oracle SOA composite is running in production but due to new government mandate you have to
update the security policy based on Oracle web service manager. What are your options to update the
security policy?
A. Attach updated policy via the command line interface.
B. Attach updated policy in jdeveloper and redeploy component.
C. Attach policy in enterprise model console test it and reattach with out redeployment.
D. Attach policy via web logic admin console after deployment.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z1-451 examen   certification 1Z1-451   certification 1Z1-451

NO.6 Two types of services with transactional behavior that can be implemented in Oracle SOA suite 11g
database adapters and ____________ .
A. File adapters.
B. Service data objects.
C. SOAP Endpoints.
D. Active server objects
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z1-451   1Z1-451

NO.7 Which two components can be found on SAO component palette of Oracle SOA component?
A. BPEL process
B. Partner link.
C. Human task.
D. ADF-BC.
Answer: A,C

certification Oracle   1Z1-451 examen   1Z1-451   1Z1-451   1Z1-451

NO.8 What is true when implementing human reactions that are part of composite applications using the
human task component in SOA 11g?
A. The human task configuration is stored in the task
metadata file.
B. The human task service uses an identity directory,such as LDAP,to determine people rules and
privileges.
C. The human task service engine executes all the human task components in SOA composite
application.
D. The human task is not available in standalone mode is always associated with BPEL process service
component.
E. The wordlist application can also be used to change the human task configuration.
Answer: B

Oracle   1Z1-451   certification 1Z1-451   1Z1-451   1Z1-451   certification 1Z1-451

NO.9 Which two statements are about Oracle SOA suit 11g s BPEL component when using the entity?
A. Data operations such as loading and saving are performed automatically by thedata provider service
with outasking to code any service in vocation
B. Data operation such as explicitly loading and saving data are performed by the data base adapter in
Oracle BPEL process manager
C. Data in variables is in service data object form. (SDO)
D. Data in variable is in document object (DOM) form.
Answer: A,B

Oracle   1Z1-451   certification 1Z1-451   1Z1-451   1Z1-451 examen

NO.10 What is the purpose of Oracle BPEL process manager dehydration store.?
A. The dehydration store is used to save all state information in a database to avoid showing down the
system due to too much IO.
B. The dehydration store is used to store the process state for long-running process which will allocate
memory to be given back to the system and will not consume resources while waiting.
C. The dehydration store is good way to preserve long running processes,and it prevents any location of
state or reliability if a system shut down
Answer: C

Oracle examen   certification 1Z1-451   1Z1-451

NO.11 Identify the correct order in which the fault management framework attempts to identify a fault policy
binding?
BPEL process or Oracle mediator service component defined in the composite xml file.
SOA composite application defined in the composite XML file.
Reference binding component defined in the composite XML file.
A. 1,2,3
B. 3,1,2
C. 3,2,1
D. 1,3,2
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z1-451   certification 1Z1-451   1Z1-451

NO.12 Oracle SOA suit 11g has two components, mediator and Oracle service bus. Both provide
transformation and validation functionality. Which two statements are true.
A. The mediator is an intra-composite component responsible for brokering communications between
components that make up a composite,enabling transformation,routing and payload validation inside the
component.
B. The mediator is stand alone component responsible for brokering communications between service
end points enabling transformation,routing and payload validation.
C. Oracle service bus is stand alone component responsible for brokering communicationsbetween
service endpoints enabling transformation,routing and pay load validation.
Answer: A,C

Oracle examen   1Z1-451 examen   1Z1-451   1Z1-451

NO.13 The event delivery network is designed for handling asynchronous messaging arising from a business
event or service and supports ____________.
A. Request-response model.
B. Publish-subscribe declarative model.
C. Fire-forget model.
D. Request-reply model.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z1-451   1Z1-451 examen

NO.14 For business rules, a rules dictionary contains one or more definitions of: facts; constraints; functions;
rule sets. Identify the correct statement that defines the facts.
A. Has a collection of facts type,global variables constants function and rulesets.
B. Are declared as: if condition than action .
C. Have an action: assign,assert,call function (or javamethod)
D. Are data or business objects on which the rule engine evaluates the rule condition.
Answer: D

Oracle examen   1Z1-451   1Z1-451 examen

NO.15 Using the Oracle BPM worklist application, a user can do which three things.
A. Perform authorized actions on tasks.
B. Create personal tasks.
C. Define delegation rules.
D. Define user groups.
E. Define task routing policy.
Answer: A,B,C

Oracle examen   1Z1-451   1Z1-451
Explanation:

NO.16 Which three components can be used to configure a human task?
A. Task management service.
B. Task routing service.
C. Data service.
D. Identity service.
E. Security service
Answer: B,C,D

Oracle   1Z1-451   1Z1-451

NO.17 Two types of services with transactional behavior that can be implemented in Oracle database adapters
and ____________ .
A. File adapters.
B. Service data objects.
C. SOAP Endpoints.
D. Active server objects.
Answer: B

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Explanation:

NO.18 Oracle SOA suite 11g configured with the _____________ application that enables the composite
application components to send application?
A. Workload
B. User messaging service
C. Worklist
D. Workflow
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z1-451 examen   1Z1-451   certification 1Z1-451

NO.19 Which these are valid methods to assign users, groups, and application rules during design time, to
tasks in a human workflow?
A. Assign users,groups,and application rules using XQuerry
B. Assign users,groups,and application rules using LDAP rules and privileges.
C. Assign users,groups,and application rules using business rules.
D. Assign users,groups,and application rules using Oracle Haley.
E. Assign users,groups,and application rules using a delimited string of users,groups,or application roles.
Answer: E

Oracle   1Z1-451   1Z1-451   1Z1-451   certification 1Z1-451

NO.20 Which two statements are true about proxy service in Oracle service bus (Oracle Service Bus)?
A. Proxy services are OSB definitions of enterprise services that exchange messages during businesses
processes and they do not have a pipeline
B. Proxy services are definitions of generic intermediary web services that are hosted locally on Oracle
service bus.
C. Proxy services can be configured using Oracle jdeveloper.
D. Message handling capabilities of proxy service are implemented with message flow definitions using a
pipeline.
Answer: B,D

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-058
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Oracle Real Application Clusters 11g Release 2 and Grid Infrastructure Administration)
Questions et réponses: 139 Q&As

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NO.1 After Oracle Grid Infrastructure has been installed, you should take a few moments to verify the
installation.
Which two actions would be useful in verifying the installation.?
A. Run the crsctl status resource t command to confirm that all necessary cluster resources are online.
B. Use the operating system utilities to verify that your SCAN addresses are being properly resolved.
C. Start Oracle Enterprise Manager and check all monitored targets.
D. Run the cluvfy comp nodecon n all verbose command to verify the entire Grid Infrastructure
installation.
Answer: A,B

Oracle examen   1Z0-058   1Z0-058   1Z0-058 examen

NO.2 Which three statements are true about using RMAN with ASM?
A. RMAN is the only supported method to back up database files stored in ASM.
B. RMAN is the only supported method to back up ACFS files.
C. RMAN can use ASM storage for backups.
D. RMAN cannot use ASM storage for backups.
E. Using RMAN, database files can be migrated to ASM from a file system.
F. Using RMAN, database files cannot be moved from ASM to a file system
Answer: A,C,E

Oracle   1Z0-058   1Z0-058   1Z0-058

NO.3 Which two actions in a warehousing RAC database may cause concurrent cross-instance calls leading
to I/O contention?
A. truncate table statements
B. select statements referring to non-partitioned tables
C. drop table statements
D. insert statements where each instance inserts into different partitions of a partitioned table
Answer: A,C

Oracle examen   1Z0-058   1Z0-058 examen   1Z0-058

NO.4 You are in the planning stages for upgrading your Oracle RAC database from Oracle Database 10g
Release 2 to Oracle Database 11g Release 2 to run under the Oracle Grid Infrastructure.
You decide to use an administrator-managed configuration because the cluster is fairly small.
Which statement is correct about this configuration?
A. A parent pool of the GENERIC server pool will be used.
B. You must define a new server pool called MANUAL.
C. A subpool of the GENERIC server pool will be used.
D. A subpool of the FREE server pool will be used.
Answer: C

Oracle examen   1Z0-058 examen   1Z0-058

NO.5 Which two types of files can be stored In an ASM clustered file system?
A. OCR and Voting Disk files
B. data files for external tables
C. Oracle database executable
D. Grid Infrastructure executables
E. data files for tablespaces F. archive log files
Answer: B,C

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NO.6 The Oracle 11g Release 2 (version 11.2.0.1) ASM instance has a new diskgroup named DATA that is
currently not mounted. You log in to a cluster node as the Grid Infrastructure software owner and set the
environment variables to point to the ASM instance on that node. Using SQL*Plus, you issue the
commands:
CONNECT / AS SYSDBA
ALTER DISKGROUP DATA MOUNT;
The system response is:
ERROR at line 1:
ORA-15032: not all alterations performed
ORA-15260: permission denied on ASM disk group
How do you diagnose this error?
A. Check v$asm_operation for operations halted by the error.
B. Check v$asm_attributes to determine the asm.compatible setting.
C. Check v$asm_usergroup to determine the owning user group for this diskgroup.
D. Check v$xs_session_role to determine the role privileges of the current user.
E. Check the connect string for the privileged role.
Answer: E

Oracle   1Z0-058   1Z0-058   certification 1Z0-058   1Z0-058   1Z0-058

NO.7 Which three actions would be helpful in determining the cause of a node reboot?
A. determining the time of the node reboot by using the uptime command and subtracting the up time
from the current system time
B. looking for messages such as "Oracle CSSD failure. Rebooting for cluster integrity" in
/var/log/messages
C. using the crsctl command to view tracing information
D. inspecting the ocssd log for "Begin Dump" or "End Dump" messages
E. inspecting the database alert log for reboot messages
Answer: A,B,D

Oracle examen   1Z0-058   1Z0-058   1Z0-058

NO.8 Your cluster Is subject to a service-level agreement that allows for little scheduled down time You want
to use patching and maintenance methods that permit the Oracle Grid Infrastructure and Oracle RAT
Databases to be available as much as possible.
Which two techniques will work some or all of the time to provide you with minimum down time?
A. rolling upgradeable and in place patch sets
B. idling upgradeable and out of place patch bundles
C. rolling upgradeable and out of place patch sets
D. rolling upgradeable and in place patch bundles
E. rolling upgradeable and out of place one-off patches
Answer: C,D

Oracle   1Z0-058 examen   1Z0-058   certification 1Z0-058

NO.9 After evaluating the various methods for extending a cluster, you decide to use addNode.sh.
The cluster originally consisted of four nodes: RACNODE1, RACNODE2, RACNODE3, and RACNODE4.
Now two nodes called RACNODES and RACNODE6 have been installed and connected to the cluster by
OS administrations.
Which three actions should be performed to check whether the new nodes are ready for running
addNode.sh and to help correct any problems?
A. cluvfy stage -pre crsinst -n RACNODE5/ RACNODE6 -C + DATA -q +VOTE -orainv
B. <oinstall group> -fixup -verbose
C. cluvfy stage -post hwos -n RACNODE5, RACNODE6 -verbose
D. cluvfy comp peer -refnode RACNODE1-n RACNODE5, RACNODE6 -orainv <oinstall group> osdba
<asmdba group> -verbose
E. cluvfy stage -post hwos -n all -verbose
F. cluvfy stage -pre nodeadd -nRACNODE5, RACNODE6 -fixup
G. cluvfy comp peer -refnode RACNODES -n RACNODE6 -orainv <oinstall group> -osdba <asmdba
group> -verbose
Answer: C,D,F

Oracle   1Z0-058   1Z0-058   certification 1Z0-058

NO.10 Which two Cluster ware stack administration actions must be performed as the root user?
A. checking the health of the Clusterware on one node
B. starting the Clusterware manually on one node
C. disabling the Clusterware from automatic start at node reboot
D. checking the health and viability of the Clusterware on all nodes
E. listing the location of the voting disks
Answer: B,C

certification Oracle   1Z0-058   1Z0-058   certification 1Z0-058   1Z0-058

NO.11 You want to create an ACFS on an ADVM volume using a shell script and the appropriate command-line
utilities. These are the requirements:
- The dynamic volume file must use space in the VOLFILE disk group with a size of 500 M and be called
prodvol.
- The mount point called /acfs already exists.
Which four steps must be performed to achieve this?
A. As the Grid Infrastructure owner, run mount -t acfs /dev/asm/prodvol-417 /acfs to mount the file system.
B. As the Grid Infrastructure owner, run asmcmd volinfo -d volfile prodvol to determine the volume
information.
C. As the Grid Infrastructure owner, run asmcmd volcreate -d volfile -s 500M prodvol to create the volume
file.
D. As the Grid Infrastructure owner, run mkfs -t acfs /dev/asm/prodvol-417 to create the file system.
E. As root, run mount -t acfs /dev/asm/prodvol-417 /acfs to mount the file system.
F. As root, run mkfs -t acfs /dev/asm/prodvol-417 to create the file system.
Answer: B,C,D,E

Oracle examen   1Z0-058 examen   certification 1Z0-058

NO.12 The Instance Initialization parameters are set to:
DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST = +DATA
DB_CREATE_ONLlNE_LOG_DEST_l = +LOGS
DB_CREATE_ONLlNE_LOG_DEST_2 = + FRA
The SQL* Plus command ALTER DATABASE ADD LOGFILE;
will create:
A. a new log file in the +DATA disk group, or a log file in the + FRA disk group, if +DATA is not available
B. a new log file in the +DATA disk group and a log file in the + FRA disk group
C. a new log file in the +LOGS disk group and a log file in the + FRA disk group
D. a new log file in the +LOGS disk group, or a log file in the +FRA dls* available
E. a new log file in the +DATA disk group, a log file in the +LOGS disk group, and a log file in the +FRA
disk group
F. a new log file in the +LOGS disk group, or a log file in the +FRA disk group, if +LOGS is not available
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-058   1Z0-058

NO.13 Your production environment cluster is running Oracle Enterprise Linux and currently has four nodes.
You are asked to plan for extending the cluster to six nodes. Which three methods are available to add the
new nodes?
A. silent cloning usingcrsctlclone cluster and ssh
B. a GUI interface from Enterprise Manager
C. with the Oracle Universal Installer using runInstaller clone <nodename>
D. silent cloning usingperl clone.pl silent either with parameters in a file or in line
E. using addNode.sh
Answer: B,D,E

Oracle   1Z0-058   1Z0-058   1Z0-058

NO.14 Your four-node cluster was originally purchased, installed, and configured three years ago. You
recently added another four nodes to the cluster.
Now you want to remove two of the older nodes that are still accessible to be redeployed elsewhere in the
data center. Which two are true regarding the procedure for removing one or more cluster nodes?
A. The procedure requires that all commands be invoked from one of the surviving cluster nodes.
B. All commands are run as root regardless of which nodes are used to invoke them.
C. The procedure requires that some commands be invoked on the node or nodes to be removed and
that some be invoked from all surviving cluster nodes.
D. The procedure requires that some commands be invoked on the node or nodes to be removed and
that some be invoked from one surviving cluster node.
E. Some commands require that the name of the node or nodes to be removed are passed as arguments,
and some commands require the name of existing nodes to be passed.
Answer: D,E

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NO.15 Some new non-ASM shared storage has been made available by the storage administrator, and the
Oracle Grid Infrastructure administrator decides to move the voting disks, which do not reside in ASM, to
this new non-ASM location. How can this be done?
A. by running crsctl add css votedisk <path_to_new_location> followed by crsctl delete css votedisk
<path_to_old_location>
B. by running crsctl replace css votedisk <path_to_old_location,path_to_new_location>
C. by running srvctl replace css votedisk <path_to_old_location, path_to_new_location>
D. by running srvctl add css votedisk <path_to_new_location> followed by srvctl delete css votedisk
<path_to_old_location>
Answer: A

certification Oracle   1Z0-058 examen   1Z0-058   1Z0-058

NO.16 Which four statements are true about ADVM interoperability?
A. Using fdisk or similar disk utilities to partition ADVM-managed volumes is not supported
B. On Linux platforms, the raw utility can be used to map ADVM volume block devices to raw volume
devices.
C. The creation of multipath devices over ADVM devices is not supported.
D. You may create ASMLIB devices over ADVM devices to simplify volume management.
E. ADVM does not support ASM storage contained in Exadata.
F. F. ADVM volumes cannot be used as a boot device or arootfile system.
Answer: A,C,E,F

Oracle   1Z0-058   1Z0-058   1Z0-058 examen

NO.17 You enter the following command: crsctl status resource MyApp
You get this output: NAME=MyApp
TYPE=cluster_resource TARGET=ONLINE STATE=ONLINE on RACNODE4
MyApp is a policy-managed resource using a server pool with two nodes called RACNODE3 and
RACNODE4 and has a cardinality of 1.
What are the meanings of the target and state status values?
A. MyApp is currently active on RACNODE4 and is meant to be active only on RACNODE4.
B. MyApp is meant to be active, is currently active on RACNODE4, but the Grid Infrastructure may start
MyApp on RACNODE3 due to failovers.
C. MyApp is active on RACNODE4 and was manually started.
D. MyApp should also be online on RACNODE3 because it is a cluster_resources type that must be
active on at least two nodes in the cluster, thereby overriding the CARDINALITY attribute.
Answer: B

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-058   1Z0-058 examen   certification 1Z0-058   1Z0-058

NO.18 Which two network addresses are required to be static, non-dhcp addresses when using the Grid
Naming?
A. GNS VIP Address
B. SCAN VIP Address
C. Node VIP Address
D. Node Public Address
E. Node Private Address
Answer: A,D

certification Oracle   1Z0-058   1Z0-058   1Z0-058   1Z0-058

NO.19 Which two statements are true about ACFS snapshots?
A. They can be created for ACFS file systems only if the ASM disk group hosting the ADVM volume file
used by the file system has free space available.
B. They can be created for ACFS file systems only if the ADVM volume file used by the file system has
free space available.
C. They can be created only if the ASM disk group hosting the ADVM volume used by the file system has
no other ASM files contained in the disk group.
D. They can be created when ACFS is used both on clusters and on stand-alone servers.
E. They are accessible only on the cluster node that was used when creating the snapshot.
Answer: B,D

Oracle   certification 1Z0-058   certification 1Z0-058   1Z0-058   1Z0-058 examen

NO.20 You want to reorganize the DATA diskgroup while continuing database operations. The DATA
diskgroup was created using normal redundancy having one disk per failure group. The two disks used
are /dev/sdal and /dev/sda2.
You plan to drop the existing disks and add the /dev/sdb1 and /dev/sdb2 disks to failure group FG_C and
the /dev/sdcl and /dev/sdc2 disks to failure group FG_D.
Which procedure would you use to minimize the effect of the I/Os of this reorganization on ongoing
database operations?
A. Set rebalance power to 0 for diskgroup DATA.
Add failure group FG_C with all the /dev/sdb disks.
Add failure group FG_D with all the /dev/sdc disks.
Drop disks/dev/sda1 and /dev/sda2.
Set rebalance power to 1 for diskgroup DATA.
B. Set rebalance power to 0 for diskgroup DATA.
Add failure group FG_C with all the /dev/sdb disks.
Add failure group FG_D with all the /dev/sdb disks.
Drop disks/dev/sda1 and /dev/sda2.
Set rebalance power to 9 for diskgroup DATA.
C. Set rebalance power to 9 for diskgroup DATA. Add failure group FG_C with all the /dev/sdb disks.
Add failure group FG_D with all the /dev/sdc disks.
Drop disks /dev/sda1 and /dev/sda2.
Set rebalance power to 0 for diskgroup DATA.
D. Set rebalance power to 0 for diskgroup DATA
Drop disks /dev/sdal and /dev/sdb disks.
Add failure group FG_C with all the /dev/sdb disks.
Add failure group FG_D with all the /dev/sdc disks
Set rebalance power to 1 for diskgroup DATA.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-219
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Siebel Customer Relationship Management (CRM) 8 Business Analyst )
Questions et réponses: 74 Q&As

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NO.1 What information does Siebel Audit Trail NOT display for an audited record?
A. The ID of users who perform operations on the record
B. The operations that are performed on the record
C. Before and after values of the record's modified fields
D. The last name of the users who perform operations on the record
E. The time and date that the record was operated on
Answer: D

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NO.2 You have the choice of doing Single Instance Deployment Architecture or a Multiple Instance
Deployment Architecture. You have chosen the Single Instance Deployment. Select two benefits of a
Single Instance Deployment.
A. It provides a consistent view of all global data.
B. A single database can be taken offline without impacting other regions.
C. A single database can support multiple languages.
D. Multiple databases support resilience.
E. It minimizes demands on communication bandwidths.
Answer: A,C

certification Oracle   1Z0-219   certification 1Z0-219   1Z0-219

NO.3 For which three types of Siebel objects can a user perform assessments?
A. Partners
B. Service Requests
C. Accounts
D. Contacts
E. Opportunities
F. Activities
Answer: C,D,E

Oracle examen   certification 1Z0-219   1Z0-219   certification 1Z0-219   1Z0-219 examen

NO.4 Which two statements are correct.?
A. Business components contain data for one fundamental business entity in the enterprise
B. A business component is a collection of related business object that represent a major area of
business.
C. The business consists of UI object definitions that specify the content of user interface.
D. A view refers to one business component whose data can be viewed and edited through a form
E. A view display, one or more applets which reference business component from the business
Answer: A,E

Oracle examen   1Z0-219   1Z0-219   1Z0-219 examen

NO.5 You are completing a solution to a business requirement, which includes a Siebel workflow process.
This workflow updates accounts records with updated corporate information and must run weekly for all
accounts. What would be the best method for invoking the workflow?
A. By a run-time event
B. Using a custom control
C. By a workflow policy
D. Using the workflow simulator
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which client accesses local .cfg and .srf files and directly accesses a local database and Siebel file
System?
A. Web Client
B. Wireless Web Client
C. Dedicated Web Client
D. Handheld Client
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z0-219   1Z0-219   1Z0-219 examen   certification 1Z0-219

NO.7 What are the two characteristics of Multitenancy?
A. Agents cannot manually assume appropriate role based on inbound work items.
B. It allows a Call Center agent to support multiple clients at once.
C. It allows users to navigate through multi-interactions.
D. It requires users to change position to access appropriate data.
E. It allows up-to-date overview of customer service effectiveness.
Answer: A,B

Oracle   certification 1Z0-219   certification 1Z0-219   1Z0-219

NO.8 What is used to capture relationships between Siebel database tables?
A. Index
B. User key
C. Primary key
D. Foreign key
Answer: D

Oracle   certification 1Z0-219   certification 1Z0-219   1Z0-219 examen   1Z0-219   1Z0-219 examen

NO.9 Which three client types require a locally Installed .srf file?
A. Web client
B. Handheld client
C. Wireless Web client
D. Mobile Web client
E. Developer Web client
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z0-219 examen   certification 1Z0-219

NO.10 Which is the correct term for a list of task steps grouped under a common display name?
A. Task Group
B. Task Set
C. Task Chapter
D. Task Unit
E. Task Book
Answer: C

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Pass4Test offre de Oracle 1Z0-803 matériaux d'essai

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Code d'Examen: 1Z0-803
Nom d'Examen: Oracle (Java SE 7 Programmer I )
Questions et réponses: 97 Q&As

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NO.1 Given the code fragment:
String valid = "true";
if (valid) System.out.println ( valid );
else system.out.println ("not valid");
What is the result?
A. Valid
B. not valid
C. Compilation fails
D. An IllegalArgumentException is thrown at run time
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-803 examen   1Z0-803   1Z0-803 examen

NO.2 Given the code fragment:
int [] [] array2D = {{0, 1, 2}, {3, 4, 5, 6}};
system.out.print (array2D[0].length+ "" ); system.out.print(array2D[1].getClass(). isArray() + "");
system.out.println (array2D[0][1]);
What is the result?
A. 3false1
B. 2true3
C. 2false3
D. 3true1
E. 3false3
F. 2true1
G. 2false1
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-803   certification 1Z0-803   1Z0-803   1Z0-803

NO.3 Given: public class DoCompare1 {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String[] table = {"aa", "bb", "cc"};
for (String ss: table) {
int ii = 0;
while (ii < table.length) {
System.out.println(ss + ", " + ii);
ii++;
}
}
How many times is 2 printed as a part of the output?
A. Zero
B. Once
C. Twice
D. Thrice
E. Compilation fails.
Answer: C

Oracle   1Z0-803   1Z0-803 examen   1Z0-803 examen

NO.4 Given:
public class ScopeTest {
int z;
public static void main(String[] args){
ScopeTest myScope = new ScopeTest();
int z = 6;
System.out.println(z);
myScope.doStuff();
System.out.println(z);
System.out.println(myScope.z);
}
void doStuff() {
int z = 5;
doStuff2();
System.out.println(z);
}
void doStuff2() {
z=4;
}
}
What is the result?
A.
6 5 6 4
B.
6 5 5 4
C.
6 5 6 6
D.
6 5 6 5
Answer: A

Oracle   certification 1Z0-803   1Z0-803   1Z0-803

NO.5 View the exhibit:
public class Student { public String name = ""; public int age = 0; public String major = "Undeclared"; public
boolean fulltime = true;
public void display() {
System.out.println("Name: " + name + " Major: " + major); } public boolean isFullTime() {
return fulltime;
}
}
Given:
Public class TestStudent {
Public static void main(String[] args) {
Student bob = new Student ();
Student jian = new Student();
bob.name = "Bob";
bob.age = 19;
jian = bob; jian.name = "Jian";
System.out.println("Bob's Name: " + bob.name);
}
}
What is the result when this program is executed.?
A. Bob's Name: Bob
B. Bob's Name: Jian
C. Nothing prints
D. Bob s name
Answer: B

Oracle examen   1Z0-803   1Z0-803 examen   certification 1Z0-803

NO.6 Given the code fragment:
Int [] [] array = {{0}, {0, 1}, {0, 2, 4}, {0, 3, 6, 9}, {0, 4, 8, 12, 16}};
Systemout.printIn(array [4] [1]);
System.out.printIn (array) [1][4]);
int [] [] array = {{0}, {0, 1}, {0, 2, 4}, {0, 3, 6, 9}, {0, 4, 8, 12, 16}};
System.out.println(array [4][1]);
System.out.println(array) [1][4]);
What is the result?
A. 4 Null
B. Null 4
C. An IllegalArgumentException is thrown at run time
D. 4 An ArrayIndexOutOfBoundException is thrown at run time
Answer: D

certification Oracle   1Z0-803 examen   certification 1Z0-803   1Z0-803   1Z0-803

NO.7 Given the code fragment:
int b = 4;
b -- ;
System.out.println (-- b);
System.out.println(b);
What is the result?
A. 2 2
B. 1 2
C. 3 2
D. 3 3
Answer: A

certification Oracle   1Z0-803 examen   1Z0-803 examen   1Z0-803   1Z0-803

NO.8 Which two are valid instantiations and initializations of a multi dimensional array?
A. int [] [] array 2D ={ { 0, 1, 2, 4} {5, 6}};
B. int [] [] array2D = new int [2] [2];
array2D[0] [0] = 1;
array2D[0] [1] =2;
array2D[1] [0] =3;
array2D[1] [1] =4;
C. int [] [] []array3D = {{0, 1}, {2, 3}, {4, 5}};
D. int [] [] [] array3D = new int [2] [2] [2];
array3D [0] [0] = array;
array3D [0] [1] = array;
array3D [1] [0] = array;
array3D [0] [1] = array;
E. int [] [] array2D = {0, 1};
Answer: B,D

Oracle   certification 1Z0-803   certification 1Z0-803

NO.9 Given the code fragment: interface SampleClosable {
public void close () throws java.io.IOException;
}
Which three implementations are valid?
A. public class Test implements SampleCloseable { Public void close () throws java.io.IOException { / /do
something } }
B. public class Test implements SampleCloseable { Public void close () throws Exception { / / do
something } }
C. public class Test implementations SampleCloseable { Public void close () throws Exception { / / do
something } }
D. public classTest extends SampleCloseable { Public voidclose ()throws java.IO.IOException{ / / do
something } }
Answer: D

Oracle   1Z0-803 examen   1Z0-803 examen   1Z0-803 examen   1Z0-803 examen

NO.10 An unchecked exception occurs in a method dosomething()
Should other code be added in the dosomething() method for it to compile and execute?
A. The Exception must be caught
B. The Exception must be declared to be thrown.
C. The Exception must be caught or declared to be thrown.
D. No other code needs to be added.
Answer: C

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2014年4月29日星期二

IBM C2040-915 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: C2040-915
Nom d'Examen: IBM (IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Solution Development)
Questions et réponses: 119 Q&As

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NO.1 The IBM Lotus Connections portlets provide access to collaboration and social
networking features
from Lotus Connections, such as Activities and Blogs. Which portlets are available from the
built-in Lotus
Connections portlets package?
A. Activities, Blogs, Bookmarks, Connections, Profiles
B. Activities, Blogs, Bookmarks, Connections, Profiles, Ratings
C. Activities, Blogs, Bookmarks, Tag cloud, Profiles
D. Activities, Blogs, Bookmarks, Profiles, Ratings
Answer: C

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NO.2 What best describes the portal model REST services that are now offered with
WebSphere Portal
V7.0?
A. Portlet model, content model, navigational model
B. Portlet model, content model, navigational model, wire model
C. Portlet model, content model, navigational model, user profile
D. Layout model, portlet model, content model, navigational model, wire model, user profile
Answer: D

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NO.3 Evan wants to develop a portlet to act as a target using Click-to-Action. He wants to
develop a
client-side click-to-action handler. Which best describes the ways that he can get the source
data
submitted by the source portlet?
A. He can retrieve the source form and the input inside from the page Document Object
Model.
B. He can retrieve the source data from the window.ibm.portal.c2a.event.value global
variable.
C. Either of the above.
D. None of the above.
Answer: C

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NO.4 A remote portlet is integrated into a portal implementation using WSRP. What new
WSRP 2.0 feature
is enabled in WebSphere Portal V7.0 for sharing parameters with other portlets without wiring
the
producer and consumer portlet?
A. Event operations
B. Cookie handling
C. Resource serving
D. Public render parameters
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following options are advantages of using Lotus OneUI for a portal
theme?
A. Keyboard accessibility with hover effects, also providing focus effects or equivalent
facilitation.
B. The code base is tested for stability, accessibility, and bidirectionality in multiple browsers.
C. Every page is enforced to look the same regardless of content, disallowing different
browsers to make
the pages look different under any circumstance or user input.
D. A and B are correct.
Answer: D

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NO.6 IBM Rational Application Developer provides an easy-to-use wizard for creating
portlets. What options
best describes the portlet types that you can use while creating JSR 286-compliant portlets?
A. Basic, Empty, and Faces
B. Basic, Faces, and IBM Struts Portlet Framework
C. Basic, Faces, and Spring Portlet MVC Framework
D. Faces, IBM Struts Portlet Framework, and Spring Portlet MVC Framework
Answer: A

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NO.7 From what source does the Page Builder theme instantiate drag-and-drop functionality
in terms of
portlets?
A. The <dnd:drag/> and <dnd:drop/> tags.
B. The theme Default.jsp sets parameters for the ibmPortalConfig object that define the drag-
and-drop
behaviors for dragging portlets.
C. The Page Builder theme does not support drag-and-drop for portlets.
D. The theme Default.jsp instantiates drag-and-drop functionality by means of loading
ibmCSA.js and
calling instantiateDrag().
Answer: B

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NO.8 A customer has requirements to remotely search user profiles based on attributes of
the profile using
web services. How can this task be accomplished in WebSphere Portal?
A. By means of the remote portal search service
B. By means of the remote PUMA SPI REST service
C. By means of the remote virtual member manager service
D. By means of the user repository APIs and wrap web services around API calls.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following statements is NOT a functionality provided by IBM Rational
Application
Developer?
A. Wizards for creating portlets and portlet applications
B. WebDav client for working with Page Builder 2 theme
C. Ability to deploy portlets on a local WebSphere Portal server
D. Ability to deploy portlets on a remote WebSphere Portal server
Answer: B

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NO.10 In a Web 2.0 theme, which of the available REST services only allow for read access
to the model?
A. Layout model
B. Portlet model
C. Content model
D. Navigation model
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which of the following statements describes the value of the Vendor variable from the
following portlet
code?
Profile p = (Profile) portletRequest.getAttribute(PortletRequest.CCPP_PROFILE);
String vendor = p.getAttribute("Vendor").toString();
A. It contains the name of the vendor of the portal server.
B. It contains the name of the vendor of the client browser or device.
C. It contains the value of the configuration key "vendor" for the Profile configuration service.
D. It contains the value of the "vendor" attribute for an identified or authenticated user, or null
for an
anonymous user.
Answer: B

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NO.12 John has developed a custom step-up handler. He has implemented the two methods
init() and
establishAuthLevel() of the StepUpAuthHandler interface. What is the outcome of the method
establishAuthLevel() returning null?
A. A null pointer exception is thrown.
B. The browser is redirected to the portal login page.
C. The browser displays the HTTP error 403 Forbidden.
D. The authentication level is assumed to be successfully established.
Answer: D

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NO.13 A site needs to be created within portal with its own title, user repository, default
content, and branding.
What single portlet is provided for creating a site within portal?
A. Content Authoring portlet
B. Theme Customizer portlet
C. Virtual Portal Manager portlet
D. New Site Creation Wizard portlet
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which option best describes how JSR 286-compliant portlets and widgets interact with
each other?
A. Portlets and widgets cannot interact with each other.
B. Widgets and portlets can interact by using shared render parameters and events.
C. Widgets and portlets can interact by using shared render parameters.
D. widgets and portlets can interact by using events.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Aside from normal steps for deploying portlets to a page, what additional step, if any, is
necessary to
configure a portlet using the Struts MVC framework and a portlet using the JavaServer Faces
framework
to the same portal page?
A. Server-side aggregation must be forced on a page
B. Both portlets must comply with the JSR286 Portlet Specification
C. No additional steps are required
D. Framework JAR files must be added to WebSphere Application Server shared libraries
Answer: C

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