Meilleur GIAC GSEC test formation guide

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Code d'Examen: GSEC
Nom d'Examen: GIAC (GIAC Security Essentials Certification)
Questions et réponses: 280 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following frequencies are used by wireless standard 802.11n to operate? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. 1 Ghz
B. 2 Ghz
C. 2.4 Ghz
D. 5 Ghz
Answer: C, D

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NO.2 Which of the following enables an inventor to legally enforce his right to exclude others from using his
invention?
A. Patent
B. Artistic license
C. Phishing
D. Spam
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following is a security threat if included in the search path of a computer?
A. /usr
B. /sbin
C. .
D. /usr/bin
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following statements about service pack are true? Each correct answer represents a
complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a collection of Fixes and Patches in a single product.
B. It is a medium by which product updates are distributed.
C. It is a term generally related to security problems in a software.
D. It is a term used for securing an operating system.
Answer: A,B

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NO.5 Which of the following records is the first entry in a DNS database file?
A. SOA
B. SRV
C. CNAME
D. MX
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the maximum cable segment length supported by a 10BaseT network?
A. 100 meters
B. 300 meters
C. 250 meters
D. 500 meters
E. 150 meters
Answer: A

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NO.7 You have a customer who wants to put wireless internet in his remote cabin. The cabin is many miles
from any other building with internet connectivity or access points. What should you recommend?
A. DSL
B. FIOS connection
C. Satellite internet
D. Microwave connection
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which of the following protocols multicasts messages and information among all member devices in
an IP multicast group?
A. IGMP
B. TCP
C. ARP
D. ICMP
Answer: A

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NO.9 Rick works as a Network Administrator. He is configuring the systems for maximum security. Before
using the security template, he wants to edit it to change some of the security settings that are not
required for now. Which of the following tools will he choose, to edit the security template?
A. Group Policy MMC snap-in
B. Security Configuration and Analysis MMC snap-in
C. Security Templates MMC snap-in
D. SECEDIT utility
Answer: C

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NO.10 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He executes the following
command in the terminal:
echo $USER, $UID
Which of the following will be displayed as the correct output of the above command?
A. root, 500
B. root, 0
C. John, 502
D. John, 0
Answer: B

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NO.11 You work as a Linux Technician for Tech Perfect Inc. You want to protect your server from intruders
who exploit services that are started with TCP Wrappers. Which of the following files will help you protect
the server?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. httpd.conf
B. lilo.conf
C. hosts.deny
D. hosts.allow
Answer: C, D

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NO.12 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a Windows 2003 domain-
based network. The company has two offices in different cities. The offices are connected through the
Internet. Both offices have a Windows 2003 server named SERV1 and SERV2 respectively. Mark is
required to create a secure connection between both offices. He configures a VPN connection between
the offices using the two servers. He uses L2TP for VPN and also configures an IPSec tunnel. Which of
the following will he achieve with this configuration?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose two.
A. Encryption for the local files stored on the two servers
B. Highest possible encryption for traffic between the offices
C. Mutual authentication between the two servers
D. Extra bandwidth on the Internet connection
Answer: B, C

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NO.13 Which of the following terms refers to manual assignment of IP addresses to computers and devices?
A. Static IP addressing
B. Spoofing
C. APIPA
D. Dynamic IP addressing
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which of the following directories contains the log files in Linux?
A. /log
B. /root
C. /var/log
D. /etc
Answer: C

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NO.15 You work as a Network Administrator for Tech Perfect Inc. The company has a Linux-based network.
You have configured a VPN server for remote users to connect to the company's network. Which of the
following encryption types will Linux use?
A. MSCHAP
B. RC2
C. 3DES
D. CHAP
Answer: C

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NO.16 Which of the following ports is the default port for IMAP4 protocol?
A. TCP port 443
B. TCP port 143
C. TCP port 25
D. TCP port 80
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which of the following terms is synonymous with the willful destruction of another person's property?
A. Spoofing
B. Hacking
C. Phishing
D. Vandalism
Answer: D

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NO.18 Which of the following devices connects two segments of the same local area network (LAN) but keeps
traffic separate on the two segments?
A. Hub
B. Modem
C. Bridge
D. Switch
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following statements about the availability concept of Information security management is
true?
A. It ensures reliable and timely access to resources.
B. It determines actions and behaviors of a single individual within a system.
C. It ensures that unauthorized modifications are not made to data by authorized personnel or processes.
D. It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following statements regarding Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) are true? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. SSL provides message integrity to prevent alteration to the message.
B. During SSL session, information is encrypted to prevent unauthorized disclosure.
C. SSL can process credit cards.
D. SSL can support 128-bit encryption.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.21 Which of the following statements are true about satellite broadband Internet access? Each correct
answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is among the least expensive way of gaining broadband Internet access.
B. It is among the most expensive way of gaining broadband Internet access.
C. This type of internet access has low latency compared to other broadband services.
D. This type of internet access has high latency compared to other broadband services.
Answer: B, D

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NO.22 You work as a Network Administrator for Perfect World Inc. You are configuring a network that will
include 1000BaseT network interface cards in servers and client computers. What is the maximum
segment length that a 1000BaseT network supports?
A. 100 meters
B. 480 meters
C. 1000 meters
D. 10 meters
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which of the following is used to implement a procedure to control inbound and outbound traffic on a
network?
A. Cookies
B. Sam Spade
C. NIDS
D. ACL
Answer: D

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NO.24 You have been hired by the company to upgrade its existing Windows NT 4.0 network to a Windows
2000 based network. In the past, the company's support group has faced difficult time because users
changed the configuration of their workstations. Which of the following features of the Active Directory
would best justify the move to the Windows 2000 network.?
A. Dynamic domain name system (DDNS)
B. Organizational unit (OU)
C. Dynamic host configuration protocol (DHCP)
D. Group policy object (GPO)
Answer: D

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NO.25 You work as a Network Administrator for McRoberts Inc. The company has a Linux-based network. You
have created a script named lf.cgi. You want to provide the following permissions on it:
rwsr-sr-- Which of the following commands will you execute?
A. chmod 2754
B. chmod 6754
C. chmod 7754
D. chmod 4754
Answer: B

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NO.26 Which of the following terms describes software technologies that improve portability, manageability
and compatibility of applications by encapsulating them from the underlying operating system on which
they are executed?
A. Application virtualization
B. Encapsulation
C. System hardening
D. Failover
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which of the following is NOT the feature of SELinux in the Red Hat enterprise Linux?
A. SELinux does not provide Kernel-level security.
B. All process and files have a context.
C. SELinux implements Mandatory Access Control (MAC) security in Red Hat Enterprise Linux.
D. SELinux applies to all users, including root.
Answer: A

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NO.28 The /cat/etc/passwd file on a client computer contains the following entry: Martha:x:::::bin/false
Which of the following is true for Martha?
A. Martha's password is x.
B. Martha has full access on the computer.
C. Martha has limited access on the computer.
D. Martha has been denied access on the computer.
Answer: D

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NO.29 Which of the following is not an encryption technology?
A. Blowfish
B. KILL
C. 3DES
D. MD5
Answer: B

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NO.30 You want to temporarily change your primary group to another group of which you are a member. In
this process, a new shell will be created, and when you exit the shell, your previous group will be
reinstated. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish this task?
A. newgrp
B. chgrp
C. chown
D. chmod
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: BCCPA
Nom d'Examen: Blue Coat (Blue Coat Certified Proxy Administrator V3.03)
Questions et réponses: 242 Q&As

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NO.1 Which is NOT a support- related site for Blue Coat products?
A.http://forums.bluecoot.com
B. http://services.bluecoar.com
C. http://download.bluecoat.com
D. http://webpulse.bluecoat.com
Answer: D

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NO.2 What are the types of challenges that can be authenticated by ProxySG? (choose all that apply)
(a)Administrator attempts to access Management console
(b) user attempts to access the internet
(c)Administrator attempts to access SG via SSH
(d)User attempts to access a CIFS file server
A.All of the above
B.b, c andd only
C.a, c and d only
D.a, b and c only
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following types of traffic are not scanned with ICAP REQMOD?
A. HTTP PUT data
B. FTP uploads
C. FTP responses
D. HTTP POST data
Answer: C

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NO.4 What acceleration techniques are NOT part of MACHS?
A. Bandwidth management (traffic shaping)
B. Protocol optimization and compression
C. IP layer route optimization
D. Object caching
E. Byte caching
Answer: C

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NO.5 The ProxySG gives you the ability to write policies through.
A. the graphical visual Policy Manager and/or the command-line interface
B. Visual Policy Manager only
C. the graphical visual Policy Manager, the command-line interface and/or imported text file
Answer: C

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NO.6 A ProxySG is designed to do which of rhe following? (choose all that apply)
(a)Enhance security through authentication, virus scanning, and logging.
(b)Increase performance through TCP optimization, HTTP caching and pipelining.
(c)Control content with URL filtering, content stripping, and HTTP header analysis.
A.a and b only
B.b and c only
C.a and c only
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which of the following Authentication Realms are supported by Blue Coat in SGOS 5.3? (Choose all
that apply)
(a)IWA
(b)RADIUS
(C)LDAP
(d)TACACS+
A.a, b and d only
B.b, c and d only
C.a, b andc only
D.All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which option is NOT available to upload logfiles from ProxySG?
A. HTTP server
B. FTP server
C. Blue Coat Reporter server
D. CIFS/SAMBA file server
Answer: C

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NO.9 What can be concluded about this request processing order?
A. ProxyAV Is accessed in ICAP REOMOD mode
B. ProxyAV is accessed ICAP RESPMOO mode
C. ProxySG with ProxyAV is deployed as a forward proxy
Answer: A

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NO.10 The default policy for ProxySG is DENY. Network administrator creates a VPM policy allowing access
to some Web host only for certain users (see picture). When installing this policy, ProxySG issues a
warning that this rule will be ignored. What change can be applied in order to fix this?
A. Add another rule to the Web Access layer creating an exception for users NOT allowedto access the
host.
B. Add another Web Access layer and set its default action to Allow.
C. Add Web Authentication layer with a rule having Force Authenticate action.
D. Add Web content layer with a rule preventing serving content fromProxySG cache to unauthorized
users.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Forward proxy of SSL allows applying policies to encrypted SSL data.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.12 The goal of creating and using Notify User objects is (Choose all that apply)
(a)to deny access to a URL
(b)to deliver a splash page to the clients
(c)to warn a user before allowing access to a URL
A.a and b only
B.b and c only
C.All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.13 What are the possible configurable options when configuring destination address in proxy services?
(Choose all that apply)
(a)All
(b)Any
(c)Explicit
(d)Transparent
A.a, c and d only
B.a, b and c only
C.b, c andd only
D.All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.14 An administrator created a PIN for the ProxySG front panel, disabled the built-in administrative account
and introduced policy-based admin auttiohration, and secured die serial port. After this was done, all the
PINs, passwords and policy settings were lost. What options are available to regain access to the
appliance? (choose all that apply)
(a)Return ProxySG appliance to Blue Coat to restore a default SGCS image
(b)Restore the factory settings by pressing and holding a reset button for 5 seconds, configure the
appliance anew or restore its configuraoon from a backup
(c)Try out all 10000 combinations of PIN for the front panel until you find the right one
(d)Remove the hard disk from the ProxySG, connect it as an external SAT A disk to any Windows or Linux
computer; clear the admin entry in the /etc/ pssswd file on that disk. Put the hard disk back in ProxySG,
start it up and reset the admin's password.
A.a only
B.a and b only
C.a and c only
D.a and d only
E.All of the above
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which ProxySG technology uses the Gaca processing pipeline similar to the one shown in the picture?
A. Blue Coat Reporter
B. MACH5
C. BCWF
D. ProxySG Services
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which streaming services are supported by ProxySG?
A. QuickTime, Windows Media, and Real Media
B. Windows Media, Real Media, and Flash
C. QuickTime, Flash, and MP4
Answer: B

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NO.17 A single ProxySG appliance can act as a Gateway Proxy and WAN Acceleration Proxy at the same
time.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which Instant Messaging proxies are available on the ProxySG? (Choose all that apply)
(a)AIM (b)Jabber
(c)MSN
(d)Yahoo
A.a, b and c only
B.a, b and d only
C.A. c and d only
D.b. c and d only
E.All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following methods is NOT appropriate for the initial setup for a ProxySG 2XX series?
A. Serial console Cable
B. LCD Panel
C. Web Wizard accessing HTTPS port 8083
D. Blue Coat Director applying a profile
Answer: D

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NO.20 The Connect HTTP method is reserved for use with a proxy that can dynamically switch to being a
tunnel e.g. SSL tunneling.?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: adwords-search
Nom d'Examen: Google (Google Search Advertising Advanced Exam Practice Test)
Questions et réponses: 235 Q&As

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NO.1 Alice manages several AdWords accounts and she has three assistants who help with the management
of the accounts. Alice receives a phone call from one of her clients regarding recent Google AdWords
clicks. The client reports that he thinks something is amiss with his account, and thinks someone has
changed the budget. How can Alice review any changes to the account and, if necessary, determine if
someone has made changes to the account's budget.?
A. Alice should use the Change History Tool.
B. Alice should use the AdWords API.
C. Alice should use the My Client Center.
D. Alice should use the AdWords Editor.
Answer: A

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NO.2 Kelly has created two ad groups for her realty business in Ohio. In both ad groups, she's identified the
keyword 'Columbus Condos' for her ads. What problem exists within this scenario that could affect Kelly's
ads?
A. Kelly should not have keywords competing against one another.
B. Kelly should merge all the ads into one campaign so that her ads will show up twice in search results.
C. By having two ad groups with the same keyword, Kelly may pay considerably more for her ads
because the ads will appear twice in search results.
D. Kelly should only have one ad group, not multiple groups.
Answer: A

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NO.3 Paula has created a Google AdWords campaign for her company. She has created a good group of
keywords for her ads, and she's eager to get visitors to her site as soon as possible. Paula would like
Google to display her ads as often as possible, until her budget is reached. What type of delivery option
should Paula choose for her ads?
A. Instant delivery
B. Accelerated delivery
C. Click-cost delivery
D. Standard delivery
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are managing an AdWords campaign for your organization. You have two assistants who work
with you to manage several ads through the Google AdWords Editor. You'd like to leave comments to
items in the AdWords Editor to help communicate changes, inform your assistants, and allow them to
respond to your queries. What's the correct path to leave a comment on an item in Google AdWords
Editor?
A. You can't leave comments directly on items in Google AdWords Editor. You can attach items, such
as .txt or .doc items to leave notes.
B. You can add comments to items in Google AdWords Editor. Select the item in Google AdWords Editor
and click Add Comment at the bottom of the tab.
C. You can't leave comments directly on items in Google AdWords Editor. You can use a Notepad
document (or any document in .txt format) and attach it to items.
D. You can add comments to items in Google AdWords Editor. Select the item in Google AdWords Editor
and click Insert Comment from the Extras column.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Nancy is reviewed her billing summary for her Google AdWords account. There is a line item in the
billing summary titled 'Adjustment - Click Quality'. What does this line item mean?
A. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that took longer than five seconds to resolve.
B. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her, for Google incurred cost overruns for displaying her ad
beyond her given budget.
C. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that didn't take visitors to her domain.
D. Nancy has been credited for clicks on her ad that were deemed invalid clicks.
Answer: D

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NO.6 You are investigating Google AdWords double-serving policy for a client. You learn that Google
AdWords doesn't allow multiple ads from the same client, based on duplicate keywords. You also learn
that individuals advertising for themselves, or for their ownbusinesses, may only have a single AdWords
account. Does Google have any exceptions for the number of AdWords account a person can manage?
A. Yes, if you have two or more products to sell from the same domain, you can manage one Google
AdWords account for each product.
B. Yes, if you use a My Client Center account, you may have multiple accounts.
C. No. All Google AdWords participants can have just one Google AdWords account.
D. Yes, if you have two or more landing sites on different domains, you can manage one Google AdWords
account for each domain.
Answer: B

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NO.7 You manage multiple accounts for Google AdWords as part of your SEO business. You have two
assistants who help you manage the accounts through sub-My Client Centers. Because this part of your
business has been growing, you have hired a third assistant and created a third My Client Center. What is
the process of moving an account from one sub-MCC to the new sub-MCC?
A. From the top-level My Client Center, choose the name of the managed account you want to move and
then click Change Client Manager. Choose the sub-level MCC where the account should be moved to,
and then Save Changes.
B. From the sub-level My Client Center, choose the name of the managed account you want to move to
the new sub-level MCC and then click Change Client Manager. Choose the sub-level MCC where the
account should be moved to, and then Save Changes.
C. Accounts cannot be moved between sub-MCCs.
D. From the new sub-level My Client Center, choose the name of the managed account you want to move
to the new sub-level MCC and then click Change Client Manager. Choose the sub-level MCC where the
account should be moved from, and then Save Changes.
Answer: A

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NO.8 Ronnie has created an image ad for her design business. When she searches Google, however, she's
not seeing the image ad displayed in the search results' sponsored links. Ronnie then creates a text ad for
Google, and this ad shows up in the results. She then deletes the text ad and actives the image ad again -
which still doesn't show in the Google search results' sponsored links, like the other ads. Why do you
suspect that the image ad isn't showing in the Google Search results as part of the other ads?
A. Her image ad will only appear in the Google Content Network, not in Google Search.
B. Her image ad must first be approved by Google before it'll show in the Google Search resul ts.
C. Her image is probably in a .gif format; images must be in a .jpg format.
D. Her image is probably too big to be used in the Google search listing.
Answer: A

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NO.9 Henry has been running Google AdWords for the past six months. He has a good clickthrough rate, but
he feels that his sales aren't in proportion to the clickthrough rate he's receiving. Henry wants to optimize
his site, but he wants to identify where he's losing visitors on the way to conversion. Which Google
Analytics report could Henry run, to help identify this trend and show optimization opportunities?
A. Top exit pages report
B. Site overlay report
C. Top landing pages report
D. Funnel visualization report
Answer: D

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NO.10 Mary has a Google AdWords account, and she feels that her Google AdWords aren't performing well.
Mary wants to make adjustments to her ad, to get more clickthroughs to her website. Which of the
following optimizations is likely to help Mary increase her clickthrough rate?
A. Mary should stop using an image ad and use a text ad only, in Google search.
B. Mary should focus on her website by adding content.
C. Mary should focus on ad quality and use negative keywords, to eliminate extra impressions.
D. Mary should create multiple campaigns, and track the performance of each campaign.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Gary is explaining the process of the Google Search Query to his manager. Gary states that the pages
that Google believes is important will show up higher in the organic search results. What term should
Gary actually use to describe the order of search results by Google?
A. Indexing Technology
B. Hypertext-Matching Analysis
C. PageRank Technology
D. Organic search listings
Answer: C

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NO.12 You're reviewing a campaign you've created for your company with your manager. The manager is
curious about the budget setting on the campaign's tab. What does the budget value mean?
A. It's the amount you're comfortable spending for Google AdWords each week.
B. It's the maximum amount you'll spend for one click on your ad.
C. It's the amount you're comfortable spending for Google AdWords each month.
D. It's the amount you're comfortable spending for Google AdWords each day.
Answer: D

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NO.13 Charlie sells merchandise online for movie products. His new line of products that he wants to
advertise is related to Iron Man. Charlie would like to create an embedded match keyword targeting ad for
his Iron Man products, without his ad showing up for the exact match of the movie Iron Man. Which one of
the following would allow Charlie's ads to appear for Iron Man Cards and Iron Man Collectibles, but not for
the exact match of Iron Man?
A. ("Iron Man")
B. {Iron Man}
C. +["Iron Man"]
D. -[Iron Man]
Answer: D

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NO.14 Charlie sells merchandise online for movie products. His new line of products that he wants to
advertise is related to Iron Man. Charlie would like to create an embedded match keyword targeting ad for
his Iron Man products, without his ad showing up for the exact match of the movie Iron Man. Which one of
the following would allow Charlie's ads to appear for Iron Man Cards and Iron Man Collectibles, but not for
the exact match of Iron Man?
A. +["Iron Man"]
B. -[Iron Man]
C. ("Iron Man")
D. {Iron Man}
Answer: B

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NO.15 John has started a new business that sells bumper stickers online. His primary advertising focus is
branding his business name, and getting as much exposure as possible on the Internet. John has hired
you to help him manage his Google advertising. Based on what you know so far, what approach would
you recommend to John?
A. SEM based on web content
B. SEO for good web content
C. CPM models
D. PPC models
Answer: C

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NO.16 You have created a report for you and your client, regarding several performance factors. You receive
an email asking you to download your report from the Report Center. Your report, as it turns out, is too big
for Google to email. What is the maximum size of reports in an email sent through Google?
A. 25MB
B. 2MB
C. 50MB
D. 66MB]
Answer: B

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NO.17 Jerry has downloaded and installed the Google AdWords editor. He manages many ads for his
company, but the web address for his company is changing. He needs a way to quickly and accurately
edit the destination URL for his company's Google AdWords ads, without having to edit them each,
individually. What's the best way for Jerry to edit the entire destination domain for his company?
A. Because Google needs to approve destination URL changes, Jerry will have to use the online Google
AdWords editor, and wait for Google's approval.
B. Jerry can do this through Google AdWords editor and the Campaign Manager.
C. Jerry can do this through the Google AdWords editor through Campaign Manager;by choosing all
campaigns and then editing the domain URL for all campaigns.
D. Jerry can do this through the Google AdWords editor, with the Advanced Editing Tools and the
Advanced URL Changes option
Answer: D

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NO.18 You are a Google AdWords professional explaining how your client should create a budget for their
Google AdWords campaign. The client is confused how Google AdWords determines the lowest possible
value for the highest position of the ad. You explain that Google AdWords uses a combination of the
Quality Score and the CPC bid. The customer still isn't satisfied and wants a more in-depth explanation.
Which of the following is the best description how Google AdWords determines ad ranks in search pages?
A. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the ad showing above you by your Quality Score, then
round off to the nearest cent.
B. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the average bid of all ads competing you ¯r e you rkeywords
by your Quality Score, then round off to the nearest cent.
C. Google AdWords will divide the Ad Rank of the ad showing beneath you by your Quality Score, then
round off to the nearest cent.
D. Google AdWords considers whoever bids the highest for a keyword and then that person moves to the
top of the order.
Answer: C

Google   adwords-search   adwords-search

NO.19 If you open your Google AdWords account and want to see instant insights into your account's
performance, where would you look?
A. Account Statistics
B. Reports
C. CTR
D. Google Analytics
Answer: A

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NO.20 Nancy has created a campaign for her boutique. She has customized the ad and targeted her city and
specific content. Nancy has noticed that her ad performs best on Tuesdays and Wednesdays, as people
prepare for their weekend plans. Nancy would like to automatically adjust her bids for keywords on
Tuesdays and Wednesdays. Is this possible?
A. No, Google AdWords can automatically change the bids, but only for seven-day increments.
B. Yes, Nancy can do this through Google AdWords' Demographic bidding.
C. No, Nancy will need to login into Google AdWords, and manually change her bids for these two days.
D. Yes, Nancy can do this through Google AdWords' Ad scheduling.
Answer: D

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NO.21 You are working with your client to optimize their Google AdWords ad. Which targeting tool can you
use, to predict the average cost-per-click for your keywords?
A. Traffic Estimator
B. Keyword tool
C. Placement tool
D. Search Terms Report
Answer: A

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NO.22 Ivan has created advertisements for his online printing business. His ads have been running for two
months, and he'd like to get a sense of where his ads are geographically being shown. How can Ivan see
the geographical information where his Google AdWords are being shown?
A. Ivan must create a Geographic Performance Report in his account.
B. Unless Ivan creates a location targeting ad, he won't see this information.
C. Ivan must create an IP Address Report; Google will resolve the IP Address to locations.
D. Ivan must create an IP Address report, and then resolve the IP addresses to locations.
Answer: A

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NO.23 Beth runs a photography business and she wants to make certain, her advertisements only run in the
evening. How is this possible with Google AdWords?
A. Beth can pause and restart her ads whenever she likes.
B. Beth can use the ad scheduling tool to choose when her ads should appear.
C. Beth can use the conversion optimizer to indicate the hours she'd like to optimize her ad for
conversion.
D. Google won't automatically adjust when the ads are displayed.
Answer: B

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NO.24 You have created a Google AdWords ad using the keyword [oil painting] for your advertisement.
Which of the following searches would most likely cause your ad to be displayed on Google?
A. Paintings in Oil
B. Oil Painting
C. Any phrase with the keyword oil painting, such as old oil paintings
D. Watercolor painting
Answer: B

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NO.25 You are a consultant for a wedding photographer, and you're helping her with her Google AdWords
account. The photographer doesn't understand why her ad for the Google Network hasn't started
generating traffic yet. You explain that the ad has just been created, and that there are three qualifications
for the ad to go live. Which of the following is NOT one of the three qualifications for an ad to go live on the
Google Network?
A. The ad must be prepaid for thirty days.
B. The ad must meet the partner requirements.
C. The ad must be opted into the Google Network.
D. The ad must be reviewed and approved.
Answer: A

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NO.26 You are creating a new Google AdWords campaign for your company. What is the default setting for
new Google AdWords campaigns in regard to search sites and content network sites?
A. Your new campaign will only appear in the Google search results home page; you must opt into other
components of the Google Network.
B. Your new campaign will only appear in the Google Content Network.
C. Your new campaign is opted in to the entire Google Network: Google search, search partners, and the
Content Network with 'Relevant pages across the entire network' in the default.
D. Your new campaign will only appear in Google search results and search partners.
Answer: C

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NO.27 Google recommends that ad creators include a strong call to action phrase in their
advertisements. Which of the following is the weakest call to action phrase?
A. Call today
B. Click here
C. Buy
D. Purchase
Answer: B

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NO.28 You have created several campaigns with Google AdWords for your clients. You are using the Manager
Defined Spend for your budgets in Google AdWords. When you create a new start date for a budget, what
requirement does Google have in regard to the new budget and existing budgets that you manage?
A. Managed account budgets must be approved by two parties before the ad will begin display.
B. Start dates for new budgets can't overlap with other budgets that may already be set up for the
managed account.
C. Managed account budgets cannot exceed $100 per day.
D. Managed account budgets can't start and end on the same day for more than three managed
accounts.
Answer: B

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NO.29 Terri has created a website for her web design business. Through her SEO efforts and good web
content, her site has reached the top position in Google's organic search results for certain keywords. On
her site, she has added the phrase 'Recommended by Google' in the header. She does not, however, use
this phrase in her Google AdWords ads. Is this a problem according to Google AdWords policies?
A. Yes, Terri must add this phrase to her Google AdWords advertisements too.
B. No, Terri can add this info to her site as long as she doesn't put this phrase in her Google AdWords
advertisements.
C. No, Terri's site is recommended by Google as she's on the top, in search results on certain keywords.
D. Yes, Google doesn't allow ads or sites to add such language that may mislead readers to believe her
site is directly affiliated with Google.
Answer: D

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NO.30 Steve is a web marketing consultant, and he's reviewing a client's Google AdWords. Steve is
interested in the keyword analysis field on the Keywords tab, in the client's campaign. When Steve looks
at the keywords quality score, he can determine how well the keyword is likely to perform.
What is the scale that Google displays the Quality Score?
A. Very high, Moderate, Low, Poor
B. Google does not reveal the Quality Score as it is proprietary information.
C. 1 to 100
D. 1 to 10
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: ACMP
Nom d'Examen: Aruba (Aruba Certified Mobility Professional 6.0)
Questions et réponses: 180 Q&As

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NO.1 Topic 1, Volume A
1. The Aruba Policy Enforcement Firewall (PEF) module supports destination network address
translation (dst-nat).
Which is a common use of this statement in an Aruba configuration?
A. source the IP addresses of users to specific IP address
B. redirect HTTP sessions to Captive Portal
C. redirect Access Points to another Aruba controller
D. provide a telnet connection to the controller
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which log type should be enabled to troubleshoot IPSec authentication issues on Aruba
Controllers?
A. Security Logs
B. Management Logs
C. Wireless Logs
D. IDS Logs
Answer: A

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Topic 2, Volume B

NO.3 When an Aruba 6000 controller has two M3 modules installed, for which uses may the modules be
used? (Choose all the correct answers.)
A. hot standby operations
B. VRRP backup
C. higher AP density per switch chassis
D. Active-Active masters
Answer: B,C

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NO: 6 Referring to the above screen capture,
which tab tells you which licenses are installed on the controller?
A. Controller Summary
B. All Wlan Controllers
C. Process Logs
D. Inventory
Answer: D

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Topic 1, Volume A
NO: 7 Which method is NOT supported to provision an Aruba thin AP?
A. Telnet directly to AP
B. SSH to the AP's controller
C. Web interface to the AP's controller
D. Console to AP
Answer: A

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NO: 8 The configuration wizard enables which of the following controller clock configurations?
A. NTP to a time server
B. Manually setting the date time
C. Daylight savings time
D. Only GMT can be configured
Answer: A,B

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Topic 2, Volume B
NO: 9 If a Remote AP (RAP) is attempting to contact a controller that is behind a NAT device what
protocol must be allowed through the NAT/Firewall?
A. PAPI
B. NATT
C. IPSec
D. The controller must have a public IP address.
Answer: B

Aruba   ACMP   ACMP   ACMP
Topic 1, Volume A
NO: 10 When configuring a server group containing 3 servers, a customer chooses 'fail through mode'.
What other feature has to be enabled on the controller for this to work?
A. Machine authentication
B. EAP Termination
C. Server group fall through mode
D. MAC authentication
Answer: B

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NO.4 In the diagram provided for this question,
wireless User A is associated with the Aruba AP. The Aruba controller is configured to perform L2
switching.
What will be the wireless user's default gateway?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer: C

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NO.5 What do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?
A. controller's MAC address and the feature description
B. controller's MAC address and the certificate number
C. controller's Serial Number and the feature description
D. controller's Serial Number and the certificate number
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-156
Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe® LiveCycle® ES2 Form Developer ACE Exam)
Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

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NO.1 Which DOM would you access to determine the value of a specific node in the XML data stream that
has been merged with the form template?
A. The Form DOM
B. The Source Set DOM
C. The Template DOM
D. The Data DOM
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which event signals that an XML based PDF has been fully rendered as a PDF?
A. form:ready
B. layout:ready
C. docReady
D. intialize
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which series of events are triggered when the Layout DOM and Form DOM are created?
A. The initialize, calculate and full events
B. The initialize, calculate and validate events
C. The enter, calculate and validate events
D. The change, calculate and validate events
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are designing a PDF form where end-users will need to add annotations or comments to the PDF.
Which form type should you create?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe XML Form (*.xdp)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Static PDF form (*.pdf)
Answer: D

Adobe   9A0-156   9A0-156   9A0-156

NO.5 You are rendering an XML based PDF. In what order is the DOM created?
A. Data DOM, Template DOM, Form DOM, Layout DOM
B. Template DOM, Data DOM, Form DOM, Layout DOM
C. Template DOM, Data DOM, Layout DOM, Form DOM
D. Data DOM, Template DOM, Layout DOM, Form DOM
Answer: B

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NO.6 You have added an insertion point to your form template. Which file format should you use to save your
form template?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe XML Form (*.xdp)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Acrobat form (*.pdf)
Answer: B

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NO.7 In which version of Adobe Reader are the dynamic features of the XFA Object Model supported?
A. Versions 5.x and greater
B. Versions 6.x and greater
C. Versions 7.x and greater
D. Versions 8.x and greater
Answer: C

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NO.8 You are creating a form template that will be used as a starting point for a series of forms. Which file
format should you use to save your form template.?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe XML Form (*.xdp)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Acrobat form (*.pdf)
Answer: C

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NO.9 You are designing a PDF form that will contain a table where the user can add and remove rows. Which
form type should you create?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe XML Form (*.xdp)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Acrobat form (*.pdf)
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which DOM is merged with the Template DOM to create the Form DOM when rendering an XML
based PDF?
A. The Data DOM
B. The Layout DOM
C. The Source Set DOM
D. The Configuration DOM
Answer: A

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NO.11 You are creating a template by using LiveCycle Designer. The template will be posted to a public
Website as a standalone form. Customers will download and open the form using Adobe Reader. Which
file format should you use to save your form template?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe XML Form (*.xdp)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Acrobat form (*.pdf)
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are creating multiple forms and want to ensure the smallest file size when saved to the server. What
file type should you create?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe Static PDF Form (*.pdf)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Acrobat form (*.pdf)
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which object is a child of the XFA DOM?
A. The Data Description DOM
B. The Data DOM
C. The dataSets DOM
D. The event DOM
Answer: B

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NO.14 The form you are creating relies on a client-side script that will change the layout of the form based on
user actions. What file type should you create?
A. A non-interactive static PDF form
B. An interactive static PDF form
C. A non-interactive dynamic PDF form
D. An interactive dynamic PDF form
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which DOM must be created before you are able to access the number of pages on a dynamic form
prior to it being rendered on a client s machine?
A. The Template DOM
B. The Data DOM
C. The Form DOM
D. The Layout DOM
Answer: D

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-058
Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Flash CS3 ACE Exam)
Questions et réponses: 106 Q&As

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NO.1 Which is the quickest way to make the stroke around an oval shape into a dotted line?
A. Apply the Dotted filter to the stroke of the shape.
B. In the Ink Bottle tool options, set the stroke join type to dotted.
C. Set the stroke type of the shape to dotted in the Properties panel.
D. Choose the Modify > Shape > Convert Lines to Fills option and erase parts of the stroke to make it
appear dotted.
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which text anti-aliasing property setting will result in the smallest SWF file size?
A. Use Device Fonts
B. Anti-Alias for Animation
C. Anti-Alias for Readability
D. Bitmap Text (No Anti-Alias)
Answer:A

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NO.3 You want to create a Rectangle shape with a defined corner radius. Which tool should you use?
A. Square
B. Rectangle
C. Rectangle Primitive
D. Rectangle Shape Properties
Answer: C

Adobe examen   9A0-058   9A0-058

NO.4 Which is NOT a benefit when adding a title in the Document Properties?
A. The title will be used for your HTML document
B. Metadata will be added for any version of Flash
C. Metadata will be added to the head of the SWF file
D. Metadata can be seen by choosing Publish Settings >Generate Size Report
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which two panels can be used to change the label text of a Button component? (Choose two.)
A. the Strings panel
B. the Properties panel
C. the Component panel
D. the Accessibility panel
E. the Component Inspector panel
Answer: BE

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NO.6 You have a TextField selected on stage and would like to separate each letter into its own TextField.
Which option under the Modify menu allows you to do this?
A. Divide
B. Separate
C. Break Apart
D. Individualize
Answer: C

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NO.7 You have a dynamically loaded image that is larger than your stage. Which component would work
best to accommodate this image?
A. Window
B. TextArea
C. DataGrid
D. ScrollPane
Answer: D

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NO.8 You are creating a project for the FlashLite player. You are concerned with the processor capabilities
of the device.
Which graphic asset would require the most processing power on the player?
A. GIF
B. JPG
C. PNG
D. Vector
Answer: D

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NO.9 You are creating a form that will fade out when the user submits it. What must you do to with the text
fields to ensure that text entered by the user will fade out?
A. Embed the font in the text field.
B. Use device fonts in your text field.
C. Set the text field type to dynamic.
D. Choose the Anti-alias for Animation option from the Font Rendering Method pop-up menu in the
Properties panel.
Answer:A

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NO.10 Click the Exhibit button.
You have selected Object 1 with the Selection tool. You switch to the Eyedropper tool and click on the fill
of Object 2.
Which object does Object 1 transform into?
A. B
B. A
C. C
D. D
Answer:A

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NO.11 You have a rectangle shape with rounded corners. You want to ensure that the corners do NOT distort
when the rectangle is scaled. What should you do?
A. Adjust xscale and yscale properties
B. Convert the shape to a Graphic symbol
C. It's not possible to prevent the corners from scaling
D. Convert the shape to a MovieClip and apply 9-slice scaling
Answer: D

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NO.12 Your company logo is available in the following formats: Illustrator, JPG, PNG, GIF and PSD. Which
format would give you the most options within your Flash project?
A. GIF
B. JPG
C. PNG
D. PSD
E. Illustrator
Answer: E

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NO.13 You want to skin Flash CS3 components. What should you do?
A. Edit the HaloTheme
B. Edit the SampleTheme
C. Apply one of the available themes
D. Double-Click a component on the stage and edit the internal graphic
Answer: D

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NO.14 You have a video project that would best be served by using full screen mode. This needs to be done
from within the browser, since you are NOT able to use a projector. Which publish settings should you
use?
A. Use Flash Player 7 or higher.
B. Use Flash Player 8 or higher.
C. Use Flash Player 9 or higher.
D. None. FullScreen mode is only possible in a projector.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Click the Exhibit button.
Which tool was used to create the graphic shown in the exhibit?
A. The Pen tool
B. The Rectangle tool
C. It CANNOT be determined.
D. The Rectangle Primitive tool
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which two file formats can be imported into a SWF file at runtime? (Choose two.)
A. AI
B. JPG
C. EPS
D. PNG
E. PSD
Answer: BD

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NO.17 User accessibility on your video project is a key factor. Which two features should you choose?
(Choose two.)
A. Set showCaptions = true.
B. Use methods of the AccessibleVideo class.
C. Use methods of the UserAccessiblility class.
D. Use Flash 8 Player and the useCaptions method.
E. Use Flash Player 9 with FLVPlayBackCaptioning component.
Answer:AE

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NO.18 What happens when you drag an object created with the Oval tool to the Library panel?
A. The oval object is added to the Library as a symbol.
B. The oval object is added to the Library as an object.
C. The oval object is added to the Library as a primitive.
D. The oval object is added to the Library as an imported item.
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which two are symbol options when converting an object into a symbol? (Choose two.)
A. Video
B. Image
C. Graphic
D. MovieClip
E. Component
Answer: CD

Adobe   9A0-058   9A0-058   9A0-058 examen

NO.20 Which is an advantage of selecting a Flash Player version in Publish Settings before beginning a
project?
A. There is NO advantage. It is identical to choosing them at the conclusion.
B. Components not available in the targeted player will be removed from the Components Panel.
C. Classes, Properties, Methods and Events NOT available in the targeted player will be highlighted in the
Script Navigator.
D. Classes, Properties, Methods and Events NOT available in the targeted player will be removed from
the Script Navigator.
Answer: C

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-094
Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Photoshop CS4 ACE Exam)
Questions et réponses: 123 Q&As

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NO.1 You have a document using the Adobe RGB (1998) color space, and you need to convert it to a smaller
CMYK color space represented by a press profile. The document contains no significant colors that are
outside the CMYK color space.
Which rendering intent will most effectively preserve the color relationships within the RGB document
when it's converted to CMYK?
A. Absolute Colorimetric
B. Relative Colormetric
C. Perceptual
D. Saturation
Answer: B

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NO.2 You want to highlight certain menu items in color. What should you do?
A. Choose Preferences > Interface > Show Channels in Color
B. Choose Preferences > Interface > Show Tool Tips
C. Choose Edit > Keyboard Shortcuts and use the Keyboard Shortcuts tab
D. Choose Edit > Menus and use the Menus tab
Answer: D

Adobe   9A0-094   9A0-094   9A0-094

NO.3 In the Photoshop Color Settings dialog box you see a warning that says: Your Creative Suite
applications are not synchronized for consistent color. You want consistent color treatment across
Photoshop, Illustrator, Acrobat, and InDesign. What should you do?
A. From the Settings list choose: Monitor Color
B. From the Settings list choose: Custom
C. In Bridge, choose Edit > Creative Suite Color Settings and apply a color setting
D. In Bridge, choose Preferences > Advanced and check the box to Use Software Rendering
Answer: C

Adobe examen   9A0-094   9A0-094   9A0-094

NO.4 You have finished editing an image acquired from a digital camera. Which command should you
choose to change the current image mode to one that is appropriate for preparing an image to be printed
using process colors?
A. Image > Mode > CMYK
B. Image > Mode > Lab Color
C. Image > Mode > RGB Color
D. Image > Mode > Indexed Color
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which two actions will display your image at 100%? (Choose two)
Select all that apply.
A. Choose View > Actual Pixels.
B. Double-click the Zoom tool in the toolbox.
C. Double-click the Hand tool in the toolbox.
D. Press Ctrl-0 (Windows) or Command-0 (Mac OS).
E. With the Zoom tool selected, click the Print Size button in the options bar.
Answer: AB

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NO.6 You choose View > Proof Colors and preview how colors will print on a specific printer. What is a
requirement for Proof Colors to work properly?
A. You have chosen Edit > Assign Profile to assign the profile for the printer's color space
B. You have chosen Edit > Convert to Profile to convert the document into the printer's color space
C. You have also turned on View > Gamut Warning
D. You have configured the Customize Proof Condition dialog box
Answer: D

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NO.7 You want to prepare an image for the Web that includes reducing the image resolution. Which
resample method is recommended as best for reduction?
A. Bilinear
B. Bicubic Sharper
C. Nearest Neighbor
D. Bicubic Smoother
Answer: B

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NO.8 You want to add metadata to a JPEG file that will be used on the Web. Where should you enter the
copyright information for that file?
A. File > Scripts > Statistics
B. File > Import > Annotations
C. File > File Info and select the Description tab
D. File > Save for Web & Devices and select from the Metadata list
Answer: C

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NO.9 You have selected the Zoom tool. What happens when you hold down the H key and click in the
image and hold down the mouse button?
A. Your image zoom changes temporarily
B. You see an animated zoom continuously zooming into an image
C. You see a synchronized zooming in of multiple images that are tiled
D. You zoom into an image while increasing the window size to accommodate the enlarged image
Answer: A

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NO.10 You are using the Merge to HDR command to combine several images. Which Bit Depth will support
the full range of luminance values of an HDR image?
A. 8 Bit/Channel
B. 16 Bit/Channel
C. 24 Bit/Channel
D. 32 Bit/Channel
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which file format supports transparency in a Web browser?
A. GIF
B. PSD
C. TIFF
D. JPEG
Answer: A

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NO.12 You are configuring the Color Settings dialog box for images intended for output to the Web. Which
RGB working space should you choose?
A. sRGB
B. ProPhoto RGB
C. Adobe RGB
D. ColorMatch RGB
Answer: A

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NO.13 Click the Exhibit button.
You've standardized your workflow around Adobe RGB (1998). How do you configure the Color Settings
dialog box so that you're always alerted when an RGB image you open contains a profile that's different
than the RGB working space in the Color Settings dialog box?
A. In the Working Spaces section, make sure Adobe RGB (1998) is selected in the RGB pop-up menu.
B. In the Color Management Policies section, choose Convert to Working RGB from the RGB pop-up
menu.
C. In the Color Management Policies section, select the Ask When Opening check box in the Profile
Mismatches check box.
D. In the Color Management Policies section, select the Ask When Opening check box in the Missing
Profiles check box.
Answer: C

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NO.14 You want to display an on-screen preview of how your RGB document will look when produced in
CMYK. Which should you choose to specify the device to simulate?
A. View > Proof Setup
B. View > Proof Colors
C. Image > Mode > CMYK Color
D. Image > Mode > Multichannel
Answer: A

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NO.15 You have a grayscale image that you would like to print. You would like to add a color tint and print the
image on two separate plates. Which should you choose?
A. Image > Mode > Indexed Color
B. Image > Mode > RGB Color
C. Image > Mode > CMYK Color
D. Image > Mode > Duotone
Answer: D

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NO.16 Which file format can store the original Camera Raw file and image data from a digital camera?
A. Cineon format
B. OpenEXR format
C. Digital Negative format (DNG)
D. Large Document Format (PSB)
Answer: C

Adobe examen   9A0-094   9A0-094

NO.17 You have four images open in Photoshop. You currently see each image in its own separate window
with its own title bar. You would like to see just one image and tabs for the other images. Which should
you choose?
A. Window > Arrange > Float in Window
B. Window > Arrange > Float All in Windows
C. Click the 4-up button in the Arrange Documents menu
D. Click the Consolidate All button in the Arrange Documents menu
Answer: D

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NO.18 On the Mac OS, which should you choose to group all the workspace elements in a single, integrated
window?
A. View > Show > None
B. Window > Application Frame
C. Window > Workspace > Basic
D. View > Screen Mode > Standard Screen Mode
Answer: B

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NO.19 You have a 12-megapixel digital camera image and you want to reduce its size for a Web page where
the image is required to be 400 pixels wide (with no height restriction). You want to edit the image further
as a layered Photoshop file, so it must remain in Photoshop format after resizing.
What is the best way to resize the entire image to the requirements above?
A. Choose Image > Canvas Size, and in the New Size section set Width to 400 pixels
B. Choose File > Save for Web & Devices, and set W: to 400 px
C. Choose Image > Image Size, deselect Resample Image, and set Resolution to 72 ppi
D. Choose Image > Image Size, select Resample Image, and set Pixel Dimensions: Width to 400 pixels
Answer: D

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NO.20 You are working with an HDR image and you want to use a Photoshop filter that does NOT work with
an HDR image. What should you do?
A. Convert the image to 32 Bits/Channel
B. Convert the image to 16 Bits/Channel
C. Convert to LAB color mode at 32 Bits/Channel
D. Convert to Multichannel mode at 16 Bits/Channel
Answer: B

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