2013年8月30日星期五

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Code d'Examen: 312-50v7
Nom d'Examen: EC-COUNCIL (Ethical Hacking and Countermeasures (CEHv7))
Questions et réponses: 514 Q&As

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NO.1 Joel and her team have been going through tons of garbage, recycled paper, and other rubbish in order
to find some information about the target they are attempting to penetrate. How would you call this type of
activity?
A. Dumpster Diving
B. Scanning
C. CI Gathering
D. Garbage Scooping
Answer: A

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NO.2 TCP SYN Flood attack uses the three-way handshake mechanism.
An attacker at system A sends a SYN packet to victim at system B.
System B sends a SYN/ACK packet to victim A.
As a normal three-way handshake mechanism system A should send an ACK packet to system B,
however, system A does not send an ACK packet to system B. In this case client B is waiting for an ACK
packet from client A.
This status of client B is called _________________
A. "half-closed"
B. "half open"
C. "full-open"
D. "xmas-open"
Answer: B

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NO.3 More sophisticated IDSs look for common shellcode signatures. But even these systems can be
bypassed, by using polymorphic shellcode. This is a technique common among virus writers ?it basically
hides the true nature of the shellcode in different disguises.
How does a polymorphic shellcode work?
A. They encrypt the shellcode by XORing values over the shellcode, using loader code to decrypt the
shellcode, and then executing the decrypted shellcode
B. They convert the shellcode into Unicode, using loader to convert back to machine code then executing
them
C. They reverse the working instructions into opposite order by masking the IDS signatures
D. They compress shellcode into normal instructions, uncompress the shellcode using loader code and
then executing the shellcode
Answer: A

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NO.4 SYN Flood is a DOS attack in which an attacker deliberately violates the three-way handshake and
opens a large number of half-open TCP connections. The signature of attack for SYN Flood contains:
A. The source and destination address having the same value
B. A large number of SYN packets appearing on a network without the corresponding reply packets
C. The source and destination port numbers having the same value
D. A large number of SYN packets appearing on a network with the corresponding reply packets
Answer: B

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NO.5 If a competitor wants to cause damage to your organization, steal critical secrets, or put you out of
business, they just have to find a job opening, prepare someone to pass the interview, have that person
hired, and they will be in the organization.
How would you prevent such type of attacks?
A. It is impossible to block these attacks
B. Hire the people through third-party job agencies who will vet them for you
C. Conduct thorough background checks before you engage them
D. Investigate their social networking profiles
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following type of scanning utilizes automated process of proactively identifying
vulnerabilities of the computing systems present on a network?
A. Port Scanning
B. Single Scanning
C. External Scanning
D. Vulnerability Scanning
Answer: D

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NO.7 Jack Hacker wants to break into Brown Co.'s computers and obtain their secret double fudge cookie
recipe. Jack calls Jane, an accountant at Brown Co., pretending to be an administrator from Brown Co.
Jack tells Jane that there has been a problem with some accounts and asks her to verify her password
with him ''just to double check our records.'' Jane does not suspect anything amiss, and parts with her
password. Jack can now access Brown Co.'s computers with a valid user name and password, to steal
the cookie recipe. What kind of attack is being illustrated here?
A. Reverse Psychology
B. Reverse Engineering
C. Social Engineering
D. Spoofing Identity
E. Faking Identity
Answer: C

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NO.8 How do you defend against Privilege Escalation?
A. Use encryption to protect sensitive data
B. Restrict the interactive logon privileges
C. Run services as unprivileged accounts
D. Allow security settings of IE to zero or Low
E. Run users and applications on the least privileges
Answer: A,B,C,E

EC-COUNCIL   312-50v7   312-50v7   312-50v7   312-50v7

NO.9 This type of Port Scanning technique splits TCP header into several packets so that the packet filters
are not able to detect what the packets intends to do.
A. UDP Scanning
B. IP Fragment Scanning
C. Inverse TCP flag scanning
D. ACK flag scanning
Answer: B

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NO.10 What does ICMP (type 11, code 0) denote?
A. Source Quench
B. Destination Unreachable
C. Time Exceeded
D. Unknown Type
Answer: C

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NO.11 You run nmap port Scan on 10.0.0.5 and attempt to gain banner/server information from services
running on ports 21, 110 and 123.
Here is the output of your scan results:
Which of the following nmap command did you run?
A. nmap -A -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
B. nmap -F -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
C. nmap -O -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
D. nmap -T -sV -p21,110,123 10.0.0.5
Answer: C

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NO.12 What type of attack is shown in the following diagram?
A. Man-in-the-Middle (MiTM) Attack
B. Session Hijacking Attack
C. SSL Spoofing Attack
D. Identity Stealing Attack
Answer: A

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NO.13 Jimmy, an attacker, knows that he can take advantage of poorly designed input validation routines to
create or alter SQL commands to gain access to private data or execute commands in the database.
What technique does Jimmy use to compromise a database.?
A. Jimmy can submit user input that executes an operating system command to compromise a target
system
B. Jimmy can gain control of system to flood the target system with requests, preventing legitimate users
from gaining access
C. Jimmy can utilize an incorrect configuration that leads to access with higher-than expected privilege of
the database
D. Jimmy can utilize this particular database threat that is an SQL injection technique to penetrate a target
system
Answer: D

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NO.14 Anonymizer sites access the Internet on your behalf, protecting your personal information from
disclosure. An anonymizer protects all of your computer's identifying information while it surfs for you,
enabling you to remain at least one step removed from the sites you visit.
You can visit Web sites without allowing anyone to gather information on sites visited by you. Services
that provide anonymity disable pop-up windows and cookies, and conceal visitor's IP address.
These services typically use a proxy server to process each HTTP request. When the user requests a
Web page by clicking a hyperlink or typing a URL into their browser, the service retrieves and displays the
information using its own server. The remote server (where the requested Web page resides) receives
information on the anonymous Web surfing service in place of your information.
In which situations would you want to use anonymizer? (Select 3 answers)
A. Increase your Web browsing bandwidth speed by using Anonymizer
B. To protect your privacy and Identity on the Internet
C. To bypass blocking applications that would prevent access to Web sites or parts of sites that you want
to visit.
D. Post negative entries in blogs without revealing your IP identity
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.15 Lori is a Certified Ethical Hacker as well as a Certified Hacking Forensics Investigator working as an IT
security consultant. Lori has been hired on by Kiley Innovators, a large marketing firm that recently
underwent a string of thefts and corporate espionage incidents. Lori is told that a rival marketing company
came out with an exact duplicate product right before Kiley Innovators was about to release it. The
executive team believes that an employee is leaking information to the rival company. Lori questions all
employees, reviews server logs, and firewall logs; after which she finds nothing. Lori is then given
permission to search through the corporate email system. She searches by email being sent to and sent
from the rival marketing company.
She finds one employee that appears to be sending very large email to this other marketing company,
even though they should have no reason to be communicating with them. Lori tracks down the actual
emails sent and upon opening them, only finds picture files attached to them. These files seem perfectly
harmless, usually containing some kind of joke. Lori decides to use some special software to further
examine the pictures and finds that each one had hidden text that was stored in each picture.
What technique was used by the Kiley Innovators employee to send information to the rival marketing
company?
A. The Kiley Innovators employee used cryptography to hide the information in the emails sent
B. The method used by the employee to hide the information was logical watermarking
C. The employee used steganography to hide information in the picture attachments
D. By using the pictures to hide information, the employee utilized picture fuzzing
Answer: C

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NO.16 You are the security administrator of Jaco Banking Systems located in Boston. You are setting up
e-banking website (http://www.ejacobank.com) authentication system. Instead of issuing banking
customer with a single password, you give them a printed list of 100 unique passwords. Each time the
customer needs to log into the e-banking system website, the customer enters the next password on the
list. If someone sees them type the password using shoulder surfing, MiTM or keyloggers, then no
damage is done because the password will not be accepted a second time. Once the list of 100
passwords is almost finished, the system automatically sends out a new password list by encrypted e-mail
to the customer.
You are confident that this security implementation will protect the customer from password abuse.
Two months later, a group of hackers called "HackJihad" found a way to access the one-time password
list issued to customers of Jaco Banking Systems. The hackers set up a fake website
(http://www.e-jacobank.com) and used phishing attacks to direct ignorant customers to it. The fake
website asked users for their e-banking username and password, and the next unused entry from their
one-time password sheet. The hackers collected 200 customer's username/passwords this way. They
transferred money from the customer's bank account to various offshore accounts.
Your decision of password policy implementation has cost the bank with USD 925,000 to hackers. You
immediately shut down the e-banking website while figuring out the next best security solution
What effective security solution will you recommend in this case?
A. Implement Biometrics based password authentication system. Record the customers face image to the
authentication database
B. Configure your firewall to block logon attempts of more than three wrong tries
C. Enable a complex password policy of 20 characters and ask the user to change the password
immediately after they logon and do not store password histories
D. Implement RSA SecureID based authentication system
Answer: D

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NO.17 This IDS defeating technique works by splitting a datagram (or packet) into multiple fragments and the
IDS will not spot the true nature of the fully assembled datagram. The datagram is not reassembled until it
reaches its final destination. It would be a processor-intensive task for IDS to reassemble all fragments
itself, and on a busy system the packet will slip through the IDS onto the network. What is this technique
called?
A. IP Routing or Packet Dropping
B. IDS Spoofing or Session Assembly
C. IP Fragmentation or Session Splicing
D. IP Splicing or Packet Reassembly
Answer: C

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NO.18 Which of the following countermeasure can specifically protect against both the MAC Flood and MAC
Spoofing attacks?
A. Configure Port Security on the switch
B. Configure Port Recon on the switch
C. Configure Switch Mapping
D. Configure Multiple Recognition on the switch
Answer: A

EC-COUNCIL   312-50v7   312-50v7

NO.19 The following script shows a simple SQL injection. The script builds an SQL query by concatenating
hard-coded strings together with a string entered by the user: The user is prompted to enter the name of a
city on a Web form. If she enters Chicago, the query assembled by the script looks similar to the following:
SELECT * FROM OrdersTable WHERE ShipCity = 'Chicago'
How will you delete the OrdersTable from the database using SQL Injection?
A. Chicago'; drop table OrdersTable -
B. Delete table'blah'; OrdersTable -
C. EXEC; SELECT * OrdersTable > DROP -
D. cmdshell'; 'del c:\sql\mydb\OrdersTable' //
Answer: A

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NO.20 How do you defend against ARP Spoofing? Select three.
A. Use ARPWALL system and block ARP spoofing attacks
B. Tune IDS Sensors to look for large amount of ARP traffic on local subnets
C. Use private VLANS
D. Place static ARP entries on servers, workstation and routers
Answer: A,C,D

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Code d'Examen: 312-50v8
Nom d'Examen: EC-COUNCIL (Certified Ethical Hacker v8)
Questions et réponses: 880 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is an automated vulnerability assessment tool?
A. Whack a Mole
B. Nmap
C. Nessus
D. Kismet
E. Jill32
Answer: C

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NO.2 A security analyst in an insurance company is assigned to test a new web application that will
be
used by clients to help them choose and apply for an insurance plan. The analyst discovers that
the application is developed in ASP scripting language and it uses MSSQL as a database
backend. The analyst locates the application's search form and introduces the following code in
the search input fielD.
IMG SRC=vbscript:msgbox("Vulnerable");> originalAttribute="SRC"
originalPath="vbscript:msgbox("Vulnerable");>"
When the analyst submits the form, the browser returns a pop-up window that says "Vulnerable".
Which web applications vulnerability did the analyst discover?
A. Cross-site request forgery
B. Command injection
C. Cross-site scripting
D. SQL injection
Answer: C

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NO.3 Bart is looking for a Windows NT/ 2000/XP command-line tool that can be used to assign,
display,
or modify ACL’s (access control lists) to files or folders and also one that can be used within batch
files.
Which of the following tools can be used for that purpose? (Choose the best answer)
A. PERM.exe
B. CACLS.exe
C. CLACS.exe
D. NTPERM.exe
Answer: B

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NO.4 Harold is the senior security analyst for a small state agency in New York. He has no other
security professionals that work under him, so he has to do all the security-related tasks for the
agency. Coming from a computer hardware background, Harold does not have a lot of experience
with security methodologies and technologies, but he was the only one who applied for the
position. Harold is currently trying to run a Sniffer on the agency's network to get an idea of what
kind of traffic is being passed around, but the program he is using does not seem to be capturing
anything. He pours through the Sniffer's manual, but cannot find anything that directly relates to
his problem. Harold decides to ask the network administrator if he has any thoughts on the
problem. Harold is told that the Sniffer was not working because the agency's network is a
switched network, which cannot be sniffed by some programs without some tweaking. What
technique could Harold use to sniff his agency's switched network?
A. ARP spoof the default gateway
B. Conduct MiTM against the switch
C. Launch smurf attack against the switch
D. Flood the switch with ICMP packets
Answer: A

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NO.5 You are the CIO for Avantes Finance International, a global finance company based in Geneva.
You are responsible for network functions and logical security throughout the entire corporation.
Your company has over 250 servers running Windows Server, 5000 workstations running
Windows Vista, and 200 mobile users working from laptops on Windows 7.
Last week, 10 of your company's laptops were stolen from salesmen while at a conference in
Amsterdam. These laptops contained proprietary company information. While doing damage
assessment on the possible public relations nightmare this may become, a news story leaks about
the stolen laptops and also that sensitive information from those computers was posted to a blog
online.
What built-in Windows feature could you have implemented to protect the sensitive information on
these laptops?
A. You should have used 3DES which is built into Windows
B. If you would have implemented Pretty Good Privacy (PGP) which is built into Windows,the
sensitive information on the laptops would not have leaked out
C. You should have utilized the built-in feature of Distributed File System (DFS) to protect the
sensitive information on the laptops
D. You could have implemented Encrypted File System (EFS) to encrypt the sensitive files on the
laptops
Answer: D

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NO.6 WEP is used on 802.11 networks, what was it designed for?
A. WEP is designed to provide a wireless local area network (WLAN) with a level of security and
privacy comparable to what it usually expected of a wired LAN.
B. WEP is designed to provide strong encryption to a wireless local area network (WLAN) with a
lever of integrity and privacy adequate for sensible but unclassified information.
C. WEP is designed to provide a wireless local area network (WLAN) with a level of availability
and privacy comparable to what is usually expected of a wired LAN.
D. WEOP is designed to provide a wireless local area network (WLAN) with a level of privacy
comparable to what it usually expected of a wired LAN.
Answer: A

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NO.7 You just purchased the latest DELL computer, which comes pre-installed with Windows 7,
McAfee antivirus software and a host of other applications. You want to connect Ethernet wire to
your cable modem and start using the computer immediately. Windows is dangerously insecure
when unpacked from the box, and there are a few things that you must do before you use it.
A. New installation of Windows should be patched by installing the latest service packs and
hotfixes
B. Key applications such as Adobe Acrobat,Macromedia Flash,Java,Winzip etc.,must have the
latest security patches installed
C. Install a personal firewall and lock down unused ports from connecting to your computer
D. Install the latest signatures for Antivirus software
E. Configure "Windows Update" to automatic
F. Create a non-admin user with a complex password and logon to this account
G. You can start using your computer as vendors such as DELL,HP and IBM would have already
installed the latest service packs.
Answer: A,C,D,E,F

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Code d'Examen: HT0-201
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CEA-CompTIA DHTI+ Exam)
Questions et réponses: 250 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is a RF peer to peer mesh protocol used for lighting and other residential
electronics?
A. Z-Wave
B. X10
C. CEBus
D. Wi-Fi
Answer:A

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NO.2 Which of the following BEST describes CAT5e?
A. Contains four pair of wires of various gauge
B. Contains two wires in a red fireproof jacket
C. Contains four twisted pairs of wires
D. Contains eight wires within a thick jacket with a rip cord
Answer: C

CompTIA   certification HT0-201   HT0-201   HT0-201 examen

NO.3 If the speakers in an installation are out of phase, this means that:
A. the subwoofer is at the wrong angle.
B. the front and rear speakers are reversed.
C. the polarity of the speakers are reversed.
D. the angle of the speakers are incorrect.
Answer: C

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NO.4 RG-6 coaxial cable is typically used in all of the following applications:
A. multi-room audio, telephone, intercom and temperature control.
B. thermostat, CCTV, smoke detectors and keypads.
C. home theater, lighting control and multi-room audio.
D. video, digital cable, and satellite applications.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which of the following determines if the alarm should sound or an entry delay should start?
A. The sensor itself
B. The way the zones are wired
C. The zone type
D. The digital dialer
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following is the correct signal flow for an analog multi-room audio system?
A. Source, Volume Control, Speaker, Amp
B. Source, Amp, Volume Control, Speaker
C. Amp, Source, Volume Control, Speaker
D. Speaker, Amp, Volume Control, Source
Answer: B

CompTIA   HT0-201   HT0-201

NO.7 Which of the following is the correct wiring order for an RJ-11 two line jack?
A. Black, Green, Red, Yellow
B. Black, Red, Green, Yellow
C. Red, Black, Green, Yellow D. Yellow, Red, Green, Black
Answer: B

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NO.8 Each time the distance from the speaker is doubled, volume decreases by:
A. 3dB.
B. 6dB.
C. 12dB.
D. 24dB.
Answer: B

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NO.9 Which of the following video outputs from a media PC provide the BEST picture quality, when
connecting the media PC to a projector?
A. SVGA
B. VGA
C. S-Video
D. DVI
Answer: D

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NO.10 When installing cables, which of the following is the BEST way of identifying the individual cables?
A. A cable chart mounted in the cabinet
B. A label at the tip of the cable
C. A label within six inches at each end of the cable
D. A penciled notation on the panel cover
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following is a diplexer used for?
A. Allows two satellite tuners to use the same dish.
B. Connects the low noise block down converter (LNB) to the multi-switch.
C. Combines satellite and over the air (OTA) signals.
D. Allows one LNB to use two satellites.
Answer: C

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NO.12 Wires that are installed in air returns above a ceiling must be:
A. fire proof.
B. fiberglass coated.
C. plenum rated.
D. teflon coated.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which of the following is MOST likely causing an intermittent flashing LED on an IR receiver when the
remote control is not being used?
A. The power supply is faulty and should be replaced.
B. The heat from a heating, ventilation, and air conditioning (HVAC) register is being received as infrared
noise.
C. The radio frequency interference (RFI) is being received as noise.
D. A plasma display is emitting infrared noise.
Answer: D

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NO.14 Which of the following is the standard aspect ratio for HDTV?
A. 2.35:1
B. 4:3
C. 1.33:1
D. 1.78:1
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following is the primary purpose of impedance matched volume control?
A. Maintains proper speaker phase
B. Protects the amplifier from damage
C. Protects the digital systems from damage
D. Amplifies the speaker signal
Answer: B

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NO.16 Small in-ceiling speakers are BEST suited for:
A. loud, bass intensive music (e.g. heavy metal, rock).
B. providing a sub-woofer for great bass reproduction.
C. background music and blending in with decor.
D. the user who wants perfect sound reproduction.
Answer: C

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NO.17 A customer notifies the integrator that the system keypad reports trouble at a window. Upon
inspection, the customer finds the window closed and locked; the customer resets the system and it fails
to correct the issue. Which of the following steps should the integrator take to resolve the issue?
A. Check that the sensor is not misaligned.
B. Clean the space between the sensor and the plate.
C. Toggle the tamper switch to reset the sensor.
D. Bypass the zone.
Answer:A

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NO.18 When installing a security system, which of the following connectors would be used to connect the
security system to the telephone service demarcation?
A. RJ-31x
B. RJ-11
C. RS-232
D. DB-9
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which of the following does an astronomical time clock do?
A. Determines the ambient light at night with a photocell.
B. Calculates sunset and sunrise times based on geographical area.
C. Determines the start and end of each of the seasons.
D. Synchronizes the local time displayed with the official world time.
Answer: B

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NO.20 When integrating a media server into a home theater, which of the following terms BEST describes
the technology used to protect the interest of copyright holders (e.g. multimedia content)?
A. Digital Rights Management (DRM)
B. MPEG Layer-3 (MP3)
C. Internet Key Exchange (IKE)
D. Content Management System (CMS)
Answer:A

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NO.21 According to Ohm's Law, which of the following is correct?
A. As voltage increases, resistance decreases
B. As amperage decreases, resistance decreases
C. As resistance decreases, amperage increases
D. As resistance increases, voltage increases
Answer: C

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NO.22 The native resolution for 1080i is:
A. 1920 x 1280.
B. 1920 x 1080.
C. 1280 x 1080.
D. 1280 x 720.
Answer: B

CompTIA   HT0-201   HT0-201   HT0-201

NO.23 Which of the following would be the impedance of an 8 ohm and a 4 ohm speaker that are wired in
parallel?
A. 2.66 ohms
B. Less than 1 ohm C. 4 ohms
D. 12 ohms
Answer:A

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NO.24 Which of the following communication methods will provide the maximum bandwidth for video
streaming through a media extender?
A. 100BaseT Ethernet
B. 802.11g
C. Z-Wave
D. Bluetooth
Answer:A

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NO.25 When certifying a CAT5 cable installation the integrator must perform which of the following tests?
A. Measure Impedance
B. Calculate Latency
C. Measure Attenuation
D. Measure Resistance
Answer: C

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NO.26 Which of the following can cause ghosting in a video image?
A. Bent pin on an S-Video cable
B. Mislabeled component cables
C. Defective HDMI cable
D. Improperly terminated coax cable
Answer: D

CompTIA   HT0-201   certification HT0-201

NO.27 When configuring surround sound systems, speaker delay is used to compensate for speaker:
A. distance.
B. power.
C. size.
D. efficiency.
Answer:A

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NO.28 Which of the following cabling would be MOST commonly used with digital volume controls?
A. Unshielded twisted pair
B. RJ-59
C. 16/4 solid conductors
D. Speaker Wire
Answer:A

CompTIA   certification HT0-201   HT0-201 examen   HT0-201

NO.29 Which of the following is the recommended placement of the rear surround speakers in a 5.1 surround
installation?
A. Directly to the left and right and slightly in front of the listener
B. Directly to the left and right and slightly behind the listener
C. Above and behind the listener
D. Directly behind the listener
Answer: B

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NO.30 An optical cable is used to transmit:
A. digital audio from a component to a receiver.
B. analog video from a component to a receiver.
C. analog audio from a component to a receiver.
D. digital video from a component to a receiver.
Answer:A

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Dernières CompTIA PD0-001 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: PD0-001
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA PDI+ Beta Exam)
Questions et réponses: 861 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following types of media would MOST likely cause above normal amounts of machine
jamming?
A.Envelopes
B.Colored media
C.Letterhead
D.Pre punched
Answer: A

certification CompTIA   PD0-001   PD0-001

NO.2 The polygon mirror is located in which of the following components?
A.Developer unit
B.Scanner unit
C.Fuser unit
D.Laser unit
Answer: D

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NO.3 Which of the following components is part of the ink dispersion system?
A.Print Heads
B.Cleaning heads
C.Pickup Roller
D.Charge Assembly
Answer: A

CompTIA   certification PD0-001   PD0-001   PD0-001   PD0-001

NO.4 A customer is concerned about excessive media jamming in their device. Which of the following is the
FIRST thing a technician should check?
A.Media feed rollers
B.Cassette drawers
C.Fusing section
D.Device log data
Answer: D

CompTIA examen   PD0-001 examen   PD0-001

NO.5 Which of the following would be the BEST process for the technician to follow when beginning to
diagnose a unit at a customers site?
A.Check the printers error log, and then inform the primary user what the issue is.
B.Go directly to the printer and investigate any issues that are found.
C.Investigate the printers status, then ask the primary user to write down what they think is wrong.
D.Gather information from the primary user, and then evaluate the printers condition.
Answer: D

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NO.6 Which of the following failed components would be responsible for the fuser unit not heating properly?
A.Halogen lamps
B.Ball bearing
C.Hot roller
D.Pressure roller
Answer: A

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NO.7 The customer has a dedicated ink jet fax machine that is used to send and receive faxes only from the
corporate office. The user complains of streaks on the received faxes while the internal self-prints are fine.
Which of the following should a technician recommend?
A.Clean the scanner glass on the distant machine.
B.Clean the scanner glass on the local machine.
C.Clean the printer head on the local machine.
D.Call the telephone company to increase the line signal level.
Answer: A

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NO.8 The proper safety guidelines for handling any device specific consumables can be found in which of
the following documentation?
A.Material Safety Data Sheets
B.Installation Guides
C.Consumer Reports
D.Devices Parts Catalog
Answer: A

CompTIA   PD0-001   PD0-001   PD0-001 examen

NO.9 An encoder sensor typically detects:
A.paper position.
B.shaft rotation.
C.magnetic flux.
D.laser beam strength.
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   PD0-001   PD0-001   PD0-001 examen

NO.10 When onsite repairing a printer the technicians cell phone rings and it is a personal call, how should
the technician handle this?
A.Answer the call and talk to your friend at the customer site.
B.Answer the call and tell the friend you will call them later.
C.Let it go to voicemail, call them back between service calls.
D.Let it ring and call the friend back when the customer leaves.
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following is the FIRST step a technician should take when troubleshooting a device
issue?
A.Gather information from the customer.
B.Isolate the problem on the device.
C.Read the service documentation for possible causes.
D.Check the parts life counters.
Answer: A

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NO.12 A customer has installed a new computer on their network. They can print to the printer but the option
for duplex printing is not available. All other computers have the option. Which of the following is the
cause of the problem?
A.The new computer is printing to the wrong IP address.
B.The new computer is using the wrong protocol.
C.The driver port is not setup correctly.
D.The option has not been selected on the driver.
Answer: D

CompTIA   PD0-001   PD0-001 examen   PD0-001 examen

NO.13 Using the CMYK color model, the color purple is produced by combining cyan and which other color?
A.Green
B.Magenta
C.Yellow
D.Black
Answer: B

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NO.14 During the photoconductor preparation step, residual charge can be removed by which of the
following? (Select TWO).
A.Pressure
B.Oil
C.Light
D.Gravity
E.Electrical Charge
Answer: CE

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NO.15 Which of the following is the purpose of a torque limiter in a roller?
A.To reduce wear and tear on rollers.
B.To provide resistance but still allow some slippage.
C.To limit the amount of movement by media.
D.To make it easier to replace rollers.
Answer: B

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NO.16 When is it advisable to dump the waste toner from a technicians service vacuum?
A.When it is full.
B.It is not recommended.
C.Before performing preventative maintenance.
D.After each call.
Answer: B

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NO.17 How many CCDs are located in a single pass duplex ADF?
A.One
B.2
C.3
D.4
Answer: B

CompTIA examen   certification PD0-001   PD0-001

NO.18 Which of the following stages in the laser print process attracts toner to the latent image on the
photoconductor?
A.Writing
B.Fusing
C.Development
D.Transfer
Answer: C

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NO.19 Which of the following is a reason black toner is used in color printers?
A.It decreases the print speed in color laser printers.
B.It prevents moir patterns when printing color photographs.
C.It reduces the cost per page when printing gray scale documents.
D.It makes the color toner resistant to smudging when wet.
Answer: C

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NO.20 When arriving at the customers location, two different users describe the problem, and from their
description it seems to be two separate problems. Which of the following is an appropriate step to take?
A.Ignore both of them and decide what the real problem is.
B.Set up a separate call for each problem.
C.Have them duplicate the problem at the device.
D.Ask a third person and see if the problem is the same thing.
Answer: C

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NO.21 In which of the following sections of an MFP would a technician find a Xenon Lamp?
A.The paper feed section
B.The fuser section
C.The scanner section
D.The transfer section
Answer: C

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NO.22 A technician is troubleshooting a network connectivity issue on a MFD and would like to eliminate the
possibility of another device on the network having the same IP address. The technician should:
A.disconnect the MFD and ping the IP address.
B.disconnect the MFD and ping the subnet mask.
C.disconnect the MFD and ping the loopback address.
D.run the ipconfig command from the command prompt.
Answer: A

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NO.23 Which of the following utilities could be used to determine a subnet mask?
A.PING
B.NSLOOKUP
C.TRACERT
D.IPCONFIG
Answer: D

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NO.24 A polygon mirror is part of which of the following assemblies?
A.Laser unit
B.Developer unit
C.Charge assembly
D.Fuser assembly
Answer: A

CompTIA   PD0-001   certification PD0-001   PD0-001

NO.25 Which of the following items can be used as a discharge lamp?
A.Halogen lamp
B.Light Emitting Diodes (LED)
C.Fuser lamp
D.Cleaning roller
Answer: B

certification CompTIA   PD0-001   PD0-001   PD0-001 examen

NO.26 Which of the following type of lamp is used for heating a fuser?
A.Xenon
B.Halogen
C.Incandescent
D.Light Emitting Diode
Answer: B

CompTIA   PD0-001   PD0-001

NO.27 How should a service representative provide closure at the end of a call for a client?
A.Explain the issues of the call, the steps taken to resolve them and query the client if they have any
additional needs.
B.Explain the solution to the issue and then provide the client with the technicians contact information in
case they have any questions.
C.Give the client a technical explanation on the issue and how it was fixed; throw any faulty equipment in
the clients garbage.
D.Proceed to the next service call, check back with the client in a week to see if they have any additional
needs.
Answer: A

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NO.28 Scheduled preventative maintenance visits should be carried out:
A.after two unplanned service calls.
B.according to manufacturers specifications.
C.when the device is becoming unreliable.
D.every sixty days.
Answer: B

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NO.29 Which of the following functions is associated with the developer unit?
A.Supplies toner to the photoconductor
B.Charges the surface of the photoconductor
C.Writes the latent image on the photoconductor
D.Cleans the photoconductor
Answer: A

CompTIA   PD0-001   PD0-001   PD0-001

NO.30 Which of the following devices can route electrical signals only when activated by an external control
signal?
A.Solenoid
B.Relay
C.Clutch
D.Capacitor
Answer: B

CompTIA   PD0-001   PD0-001 examen   PD0-001

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Certification CompTIA de téléchargement gratuit pratique d'examen JK0-016, questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: JK0-016
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA Network+(2009 Edition) Exam)
Questions et réponses: 700 Q&As

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NO.1 A 66 block is typically connected to the telecommunication company through which of the following
types of cable?
A.CAT6
B.25 pair
C.Fiber optic
D.100 pair
Answer:B

CompTIA examen   JK0-016 examen   JK0-016

NO.2 Which of the following network hardware allows the MOST network traffic collisions?
A.WAP
B.Hub
C.Switch
D.Router
Answer:B

CompTIA examen   certification JK0-016   certification JK0-016   certification JK0-016   JK0-016

NO.3 Which of the following can operate at both layers 2 and 3 of the OSI model?
A.Hub
B.Repeater
C.Switch
D.Bridge
Answer:C

CompTIA   certification JK0-016   certification JK0-016   JK0-016

NO.4 Automatic private Internet protocol addressing (APIPA) assigns IP addresses from which of the
following ranges?
A.172.16.x.x
B.10.0.x.x
C.192.168.x.x
D.169.254.x.x
Answer:D

certification CompTIA   JK0-016   JK0-016   JK0-016   JK0-016

NO.5 A technician is setting up a wireless network using WEP and DHCP. The technician has set the
channel and SSID on the client workstation. Which of the following is the remaining step to complete the
configuration?
A.Enter the username and password.
B.Enter an IP address for the client.
C.Change the SSID.
D.Enter the encryption key.
Answer:D

CompTIA   JK0-016   JK0-016

NO.6 Which of the following VPN protocols runs over port 1723 and allows encryption to be done at the data
level?
A.PPTP
B.SLIP
C.PPPoE
D.RAS
Answer:A

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NO.7 Convert the following binary string to its dotted decimal address:
11000000.10101000.01100011.00011010
A.192.168.99.26
B.192.168.101.26
C.192.168.101.34
D.192.168.99.34
Answer:A

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NO.8 A technician needs to connect a laptop via the small office, home office (SOHO) wireless access point.
When the technician does a site survey using the laptop the wireless network is not discovered.
Computers previously on the wireless network were connected, and the wireless card appears to be
working. Which of the following could be causing the issue?
A.The WEP key is not correct.
B.The wireless router does not have adequate AC power.
C.The SSID is set to not broadcast.
D.The laptop is running on Windows Service Pack 1.
Answer:C

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NO.9 At which of the following layers of the OSI model would a repeater operate?
A.Layer 1
B.Layer 3
C.Layer 5
D.Layer 7
Answer:A

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NO.10 Which of the following is part of the IP protocol suite and is used to monitor network managed devices?
A.SMTP
B.LDAP
C.SMB
D.SNMP
Answer:D

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NO.11 Which of the following is a topology used in networks for its scalability?
A.Bus
B.Star
C.Mesh
D.Ring
Answer:B

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NO.12 Which of the following protocols permits secure polling of network devices?
A.SCP
B.SSH
C.SNMPv2
D.SNMPv3
Answer:D

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NO.13 Implementing a set of policies and procedures that define the corporate information is confidential and
training employees on these procedures can help prevent which of the following?
A.Patch management
B.Man-in-the-middle attacks
C.Smurf attacks
D.Social engineering
Answer:D

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NO.14 Which of the following authentication methods allows for domain level authentication on a wireless
network?
A.WEP
B.RADIUS
C.TKIP
D.WAP
Answer:B

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NO.15 SMTP resides at which of the following layers of the OSI model?
A.Transport
B.Application
C.Network
D.Presentation
Answer:B

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NO.16 A network using RIP has taken several minutes to begin routing traffic around a failed piece of
equipment. Which of the following could be implemented to improve convergence time?
A.Replace RIP with static routes so dynamic updates are not sent.
B.Replace RIP with a distance-vector routing protocol such as RIP version 2.
C.Replace RIP with a link-state routing protocol such as OSPF.
D.Replace RIP with an exterior gateway protocol such as BGP.
Answer:C

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NO.17 A company is in the process of upgrading their network infrastructure to support new VoIP telephony
equipment. Which of the following is a primary feature to consider when selecting a new switch to support
the phones?
A.PoE
B.Modular chassis
C.Port mirroring
D.VPN capability
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which of the following is the maximum number of wire pairs that can be used in an RJ-11 connector?
A.2
B.4
C.6
D.8
Answer:A

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NO.19 Which of the following network services is responsible for mapping names to IP addresses?
A.DHCP
B.DNS
C.IMAP4
D.Telnet
Answer:B

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NO.20 Which of the following software types would BEST be used for identifying an attack?
A.IDS
B.Packet sniffer
C.IPS
D.Port scanner
Answer:A

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NO.21 Which of the following is correct when converting 192 to binary?
A.11000000
B.00110000
C.00001100
D.00000011
Answer:A

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NO.22 Which of the following cable types allows for the maximum cable run distance?
A.Multi-mode fiber
B.Single-mode fiber
C.CAT3
D.Coaxial
Answer:B

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NO.23 Everyday around lunch time there is network latency on the Windows proxy server 10.1.1.7. Which of
the following network utilities can a technician run in order to determine the severity of the latency?
A.arp -t 10.1.1.7
B.tracert -t 10.1.1.7
C.ping -t 10.1.1.7
D.nbtstat -t 10.1.1.7
Answer:C

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NO.24 Which of the following is used to simplify the process of setting up a network and the administration of
the network?
A.DNS
B.ZEROCONF
C.WINS
D.SNMP
Answer:B

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NO.25 Remote users are having problems accessing files from a file server. Which of the following should a
technician check FIRST?
A.Connectivity
B.User accounts
C.Network resources
D.Access rights
Answer:A

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NO.26 Which of the following is a utility that translates the IP address to its physical network address?
A.netstat
B.rarp
C.arp
D.nslookup
Answer:C

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NO.27 Which of the following mechanisms is used to calculate back-off time on an Ethernet link after a
collision?
A.Weighted Random Early Detect (WRED)
B.Spanning Tree
C.CSMA/CD
D.CSMA/CA
Answer:C

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NO.28 Which of the following routing protocols uses AS-Path as one of the methods to build the routing table?
A.OSPF
B.IS-IS
C.EIGRP
D.BGP
Answer:D

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NO.29 Which of the following is an advantage of 100Base-FX over 100Base-TX?
A.Ease of installation
B.Uses a more durable cable
C.Faster transmission speeds
D.Longer cable runs
Answer:D

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NO.30 A technician is troubleshooting connectivity issues on a clients machine. The technician needs to see
the current NetBIOS configuration and open connections, which of the following commands would allow
this information to be displayed?
A.nbtstat
B.netstat
C.msconfig
D.ipconfig
Answer:A

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Code d'Examen: JK0-702
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (CompTIA E2C A+ Practical Application (2009 Edition) Exam)
Questions et réponses: 904 Q&As

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NO.1 Which of the following is the effective bandwidth of a 100BASE-TX network card when full-duplex is
enabled?
A. 50MBps
B. 100MBps
C. 200MBps
D. 1000MBps
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following groups should a user be added to for the ability to restore files, without granting
any ownership privileges?
A. Remote Desktop Users
B. Power Users
C. Administrators
D. Backup Operators
Answer: D

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NO.3 A technician is attempting to determine whether a CAT5 patch cord is a straight-through or a
crossover.
Which of the following is the BEST to use to determine the cord type?
A. Cable tester
B. Loopback cable
C. Multimeter
D. Extension magnet
Answer: A

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NO.4 A technician needs to upgrade memory on a laptop with one available memory slot. The type and
amount of memory has been confirmed to be correct. Once the new memory is added, the BIOS reports
the original memory size.
Which of the following is the NEXT step to perform?
A. Replace all of the laptop's memory.
B. Reseat the laptop memory.
C. Perform a Windows Update.
D. Replace the motherboard.
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following groups should staff accounts be placed in, if the staff is required to perform most
but not all maintenance tasks on a Windows PC?
A. Power Users
B. User
C. Administrator
D. Guest
Answer: A

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NO.6 An assistant in a company unexpectedly falls ill the week before a major company merger. The
assistant was responsible for maintaining all of the files concerning the merger and used NTFS
permissions on the folders to keep them protected. No one has the passwords but the data must be
accessed immediately.
Which of the following would be the BEST method for the technician to access this data?
A. Log in as administrator and copy the files to the assistant's manager profile on the computer.
B. Log in as administrator and assign ownership of the files to the assistant's manager.
C. Log in as administrator and assign share rights of the files to the assistant's manager.
D. Log in as administrator and rename the assistant's profile to the manager's profile on the computer.
Answer: B

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NO.7 A user is having trouble printing. The technician determines that the print queue has stalled and the
print spooler service has stopped.
Which of the following can be used to restart the print spooler?
A. Start>All Programs>Printing>Restart Spooler.
B. Restart the computer.
C. Start>Control Panel>Printers and Faxes>right click the name of the affected printer>Restart Spooler.
D. Start>Control Panel>Administrative Tools>Services>Select Print Spooler>Start.
Answer: D

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NO.8 An inkjet printer has poor color registration.
Which of the following should be done FIRST to resolve the problem?
A. Clean the printheads.
B. Replace the toner.
C. Calibrate the device.
D. Replace the drum.
Answer: C

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NO.9 A technician is troubleshooting software that was supposed to startup when the PC powered on. The
software failed to start.
Which of the following should the technician use to investigate the issue?
A. Sessions
B. System
C. Security
D. Application
Answer: D

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NO.10 A customer wants to change the file system on a Windows 2000 PC from FAT32 to NTFS without
destroying data.
Which of the following is correct?
A. From the command line run XCOPY *.* C: /M
B. From the command line run FORMAT C: /FS:NTFS
C. From the command line run XCOPY *.* C: /-Y
D. From the command line run CONVERT C: /FS:NTFS
Answer: D

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NO.11 A customer cannot print certain PDF documents on their laser printer. The print job in is a multi-page
large PDF with multiple colors.
Which of the following is the MOST likely solution?
A. Change the driver from PCL to Post Script.
B. Update the printer firmware to handle larger jobs.
C. Add additional memory to the laser printer.
D. Add additional memory to the computer.
Answer: C

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NO.12 A technician's system is displaying the error message 'Missing operating system'. The system will not
boot up.
Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error? (Select TWO).
A. The MBR is not reading the volume boot record (VBR).
B. The CMOS battery is not functional.
C. A failed integrated controller on the hard disk drive.
D. The volume boot record (VBR) is missing 55Ah.
E. Drive parameters in the BIOS are not set to auto.
Answer: A,B

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NO.13 Which of the following protocols would a technician use to run commands on a remote computer.?
A. NETBIOS
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. TELNET
Answer: D

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NO.14 A customer reports that their sound is not working. They state that the speakers worked previously.
Which of the following should the technician check? (Select THREE).
A. Speakers are in regulatory compliance.
B. Speakers are on and the mute is off.
C. Ensure the speakers are on the Windows HCL.
D. Verify the system has enough hard drive space.
E. The audio driver is installed correctly.
F. Speakers are plugged into the correct jack.
Answer: B,E,F

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NO.15 A technician is setting up a secure SOHO network.
Which of the following items needs to be setup on the network?
A. SSID, encryption type, MAC security, encryption key
B. SSID, wireless access point, encryption type, encryption key
C. SSID, encryption type, encryption key, a channel
D. SSID, WEP 128, MAC security, a channel
Answer: C

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NO.16 During POST a beep can be heard, and the computer does not boot.
Which of the following BEST describes the problem?
A. RAM failure
B. Power supply failure
C. Floppy drive failure
D. Hard drive failure
Answer: A

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NO.17 A user reports that their computer is running considerably slower after visiting a website. The user's PC
has a current antivirus package that is running correctly.
Which of the following should the technician do FIRST in order to diagnose the problem?
A. Clear the web browser history.
B. Run an anti-spyware tool.
C. Defrag the user's hard drive.
D. Run the CHKDSK utility.
Answer: B

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NO.18 A technician is replacing a wireless router on an existing small office home office (SOHO) network. The
SSID, WPA and DHCP information has been correctly added.
Which of the following must also be addressed?
A. The administrative password needs to be changed.
B. The TKIP option needs to be enabled.
C. The WEP key needs to be changed.
D. Wireless access points need to be added.
Answer: A

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NO.19 When using a cable select configuration for multiple ATA hard drives, which of the following pin
numbers is used to communicate the drive that is selected as master?
A. 20
B. 21
C. 28
D. 39
Answer: C

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NO.20 A user reports that email is working but they are unable to access the Internet. Which of the following is
the NEXT step in solving the issue?
A. Check the DNS server.
B. Check the DHCP server.
C. Verify the correct IP address.
D. Ensure the website is not blocked.
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: SY0-301
Nom d'Examen: CompTIA (Security+ Certification Exam 2011 version)
Questions et réponses: 298 Q&As

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NO.1 A company is performing internal security audits after a recent exploitation on one of their proprietary
applications. Sara, the security auditor, is given the workstation with limited documentation regarding the
application installed for the audit. Which of the following types of testing methods is this?
A. Sandbox
B. White box
C. Black box
D. Gray box
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following authentication protocols forces centralized wireless authentication?
A. WPA2-Personal
B. WPA2-Enterprise
C. WPA2-CCMP
D. WPA2-TKIP
Answer: B

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NO.3 Sara, a security analyst, discovers which operating systems the client devices on the network are
running by only monitoring a mirror port on the router. Which of the following techniques did Sara use?
A. Active fingerprinting
B. Passive finger printing
C. Protocol analyzing
D. Network enumerating
Answer: B

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NO.4 Pete, a security administrator, wants to secure remote telnet services and decides to use the services
over SSH. Which of the following ports should Pete allow on the firewall by default?
A. 21
B. 22
C. 23
D. 25
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which of the following inspects traffic entering or leaving a network to look for anomalies against
expected baselines?
A. IPS
B. Sniffers
C. Stateful firewall
D. Stateless firewall
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following is an example of a false negative?
A. The IDS does not identify a buffer overflow
B. Anti-virus identifies a benign application as malware.
C. Anti-virus protection interferes with the normal operation of an application.
D. A user account is locked out after the user mistypes the password too many times.
Answer: A

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NO.7 Which of the following encrypts the body of a packet, rather than just the password, while sending
information?
A. LDAP
B. TACACS+
C. ACLs
D. RADIUS
Answer: B

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NO.8 A computer is put into a restricted VLAN until the computer's virus definitions are up-to-date. Which of
the following BEST describes this system type?
A. NAT
B. NIPS
C. NAC
D. DMZ
Answer: C

CompTIA   SY0-301 examen   SY0-301

NO.9 Social networking sites are used daily by the marketing team for promotional purposes. However,
confidential company information, including product pictures and potential partnerships, have been
inadvertently exposed to the public by dozens of employees using social networking sites. Which of
following is the BEST response to mitigate this threat with minimal company disruption?
A. Mandate additional security awareness training for all employees.
B. Report each employee to Human Resources for termination for violation of security policies
C. Implement a data loss prevention program to filter email.
D. Block access to social networking sites from the corporate network
Answer: A

CompTIA   SY0-301   SY0-301 examen   SY0-301

NO.10 Which of the following risks could IT management be mitigating by removing an all-in-one device?
A. Continuity of operations
B. Input validation
C. Single point of failure
D. Single sign on
Answer: C

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NO.11 Which of the following BEST describes a software vulnerability that is actively being used by Sara and
Jane, attackers, before the vendor releases a protective patch or update?
A. Buffer overflow
B. IV attack
C. Zero day attack
D. LDAP injection
Answer: C

CompTIA   SY0-301   SY0-301

NO.12 Sara and Jane, users, are reporting an increase in the amount of unwanted email that they are receiving
each day.
Which of the following would be the BEST way to respond to this issue without creating a lot of
administrative overhead.?
A. Deploy an anti-spam device to protect the network.
B. Update the anti-virus definitions and make sure that it is set to scan all received email
C. Set up spam filtering rules in each user's mail client.
D. Change the firewall settings to block SMTP relays so that the spam cannot get in.
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following BEST allows Pete, a security administrator, to determine the type, source, and
flags of the packet traversing a network for troubleshooting purposes?
A. Switches
B. Protocol analyzers
C. Routers
D. Web security gateways
Answer: B

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NO.14 Which of the following is the BEST solution to securely administer remote servers?
A. SCP
B. SSH
C. Telnet
D. SFTP
Answer: B

CompTIA   SY0-301 examen   SY0-301

NO.15 Which of the following is a valid server-role in a Kerberos authentication system?
A. Token issuing system
B. Security assertion server
C. Authentication agent
D. Ticket granting server
Answer: D

CompTIA   certification SY0-301   SY0-301

NO.16 Sara, an IT administrator, wants to protect a cluster of servers in a DMZ from zero day attacks. Which
of the following would provide the BEST level of protection?
A. NIPS
B. NIDS
C. ACL
D. Antivirus
Answer: A

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NO.17 Which of the following is similar to a smurf attack, but uses UDP instead to ICMP?
A. X-Mas attack
B. Fraggle attack
C. Vishing
D. Man-in-the-middle attack
Answer: B

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NO.18 The fundamental information security principals include confidentiality, availability and which of the
following?
A. The ability to secure data against unauthorized disclosure to external sources
B. The capacity of a system to resist unauthorized changes to stored information
C. The confidence with which a system can attest to the identity of a user
D. The characteristic of a system to provide uninterrupted service to authorized users
Answer: B

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NO.19 A company has sent all of its private keys to a third party. The third party company has created a
secure list of these keys. Which of the following has just been implemented?
A. Key escrow
B. CRL
C. CA
D. Recovery agent
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following accurately describes the STRONGEST multifactor authentication?
A. Something you are, something you have
B. Something you have, something you know
C. Something you are near to, something you have
D. Something you have, someone you know
Answer: A

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