3COM 3M0-211 examen pratique questions et réponses

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Code d'Examen: 3M0-211

Nom d'Examen: 3COM (Certified Enterprise LAN Specialist )

Questions et réponses: 80 Q&As

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NO.1 Which three are benefits/features of the 3Com XRN technology? (Choose three)
A. Ensure continuous network availability
B. Supports enhanced network performance
C. Can be created using any IP-based switch
D. Create a path for future-proofing the network
E. Eliminates the need for hardware redundancy to achieve maximum network resiliency
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.2 Which command shows the Quality of Service (QoS) settings for interface Modules
#2 Ethernet port #6 on the Switch 7700?
A. display qos Ethernet 6/2 all
B. display qos Ethernet 2/0/6 all
C. display qos-interface Ethernet 2/0/6 all
D. display qos-interface Ethernet 6/0/2 all
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which three are true statements regarding 10 Gigabit technology and/or 3Com
products? (Choose three)
A. The 3 Com XFP 10G Fiber Transceivers use LC connects
B. IEEE 802.3X defines the 10GBASE-CX4 standard for Twin axial
C. 3Com supports 10G interface Modules for both the Switch 7700 and Switch 8800
D. The 10GBASE-T standard requires four-pair Category 5 or two-pair Category 6 UTP
wiring
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.4 Exhibit:
Which three Ethernet modes are supported on the Switch 7700 8-port
1000BASE-T(3c16859)Interface Module? (Choose three)
A. 10 Mbps in full duplex only
B. 10 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
C. 100 Mbps in full duplex mode only
D. 100 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
E. 1000 Mbps in full duplex mode only
F. 1000 Mbps in half/full duplex mode
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.5 Which two should you verify on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 if the
network is experiencing an Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) problem? (Choose
two)
A. OSPF is enabled on all switch ports
B. VRRP is properly configured on the switch ports supporting OSPF
C. The Link State Database is the same for all routers in an OSPF area
D. The switch is sending/receiving OSPF Hello packets and Link State updates
Answer: C,D

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NO.6 What is the benefit of using the Switch 40x0 Family's Spanning Tree Ignore/Disable
feature?
A. Prevents disassociation of Layer 2 traffic from Layer 3 traffic.
B. Enables use of a routing protocol at Layer 2 to make forwarding decisions
C. Enables use of spanning Tree Protocol (STP) at Layer 3 to prevent loops in the
network
D. Supports use of routing paths at Layer 3, while Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
manages Layer 2 switched links
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which component of XRN technology is defined as "A set of interconnected
switches that support Distributed Device Management (DDM), Distributed Link
Aggregation (DLA) and Distributed Resilient Routing (DRR)"?
A. XRN Interconnect
B. XRN Distributed Fabric
C. XRN Interconnect Fabric
D. XRN Distributed Software
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which three are Quality of Service (QoS) features/functions on the Switch 8800?
(Choose three)
A. Has eight output queues per port
B. Supports Differentiated Services (DiffServ)prioritization
C. Uses a Randam Early Detection (RED) queue prioritization
D. Uses a Weihted Random Early Detection (WRED) queue prioritization
E. Can configure the priority queues "globally" across all I/O interfaces on a switch
F. Uses Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) to allocate bandwidth for high-priority
applications
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 Which three are recommended guidelines for an XRN network? (Choose three)
A. Only enable Rapid Spanning Tree Protocol (RSTP) or Spanning Tree Protocol (STP)
on edge switches
B. Do not insert Fabric interconnect Modules into the Super Stack 3 Switch 4900 or
Switch 40x0 switches
C. Run the same version of the Gigabit Multilayer Switching (MS) Software (4Xor
higher) across the fabric
D. Use fault-tolerant 3Comhardware, i.e the Switch 40x0 family that provides additional
levels of hardware fault tolerance
E. The XRN Fabric Modules should be installed while the fabric switch powered on. Hot
swapping XRN Fabric Modules is also recommended in the event of a failure
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.10 Which Switch 7700 command would show if Port#4 on Ethernet Module #2 is a
member of a Link Aggregation (LA) group and is the "LA Master Port"?
A. display interface Ethernet 2/4
B. display interface Ethernet 2/04
C. display interface Ethernet 4/0/2
D. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/4
E. display link-aggregation Ethernet 2/0/4
F. display link-aggregation Ethernet 4/0/2
Answer: B

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NO.11 Which two are functions of Switch 40x0 Family Multinetting? (Choose two)
A. Automatically assigns multiple VLANs on each router interface
B. Floods traffic from different subnets on the same broadcast domain
C. Enables configuration of multiple router interfaces for each VLan/broadcast domain
D. Enables multiple VLANs/broadcast domains to be configured for each router interface
Answer: B,C

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NO.12 The Switch 7700 or Switch 8800 can be used as the primary authentication service
or as a backup if the RADIUS server group is unavailable.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which three components are required to create a local XRN solution (excluding the
appropriate 3Com switches? (Choose three)
A. 3Com Network Supervisor
B. XRN Fabric interconnect Modules
C. High-Bandwidth interconnect Cable
D. Gigabit Multilayer Switching Software V3.x
E. Gigabit Ethernet Layer switching modules
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.14 Which three are advantages of using 3Com's XRN Distribution Resilient Routing
(DRR) over Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol (VRRP)? (Choose three)
A. DRR is easy to configure and administer, VRRP is more complex to manage
B. DRR supports both IP unicast and IP multicast traffic, VRRP only supports IP unicast
routing
C. DRR fast failover is less than five seconds, VRRP fast failover can take as long as 60
seconds
D. DRR distributes routing table updates only, VRRP distributes the entire routing table
to update other devices
E. DRR distributes routing across all switches in the XRN Distributed Fabric on the
router interfaces, VRRP uses a single Master router for all routing
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.15 Which three are security-design features that can be employed in enterprise
networks to improve security? (Choose three)
A. Enable IEEE 802 d link aggregation
B. Turn off IGMP snooping on all access-layer switches
C. Provide security for active devices using local or RADIUS authentication
D. Support IEEE 802.1X Network Login for authentication and authorization
E. Provide separate VLANs for management and wireless users with a VLAN-centric
design
F. Employee TCP Windowing and or IEEE802.3X Flow Control to minimize effects of
network attacks
Answer: C,D,E

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NO.16 What is the maximum number of Linux Aggregation load-balancing groups
supported on the Switch 7700?
A. 4 groups
B. 13 groups
C. 24 groups
D. 64 groups
E. 128 groups
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which two should be verified on either the Switch 7700 or the Switch 8800 when the
network is experiences a RIP problem? (Choose two)
A. Check if BP is enabled on the switches using RIP
B. Check if the RIP versions are the same on the router interfaces
C. Use the "display RIP-statistics" command to check all RIP routes on the switch
D. Use the "display RIP packet" command to check if the switch is sending/receiving RIP
updates
E. Use the "debugging RIP packet" command to check if the switch is sending/receiving
RIP updates
Answer: B,E

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NO.18 Which three are key requirements for the Access Layer (edge) of the network?
(Choose three)
A. Multilayer traffic prioritization
B. Multiple priority queues per port
C. Hardware-based Access Control List (ACLs)
D. Rate limiting and remarking for outgoing traffic.
E. MAC address authorization or IEEE 802.1X Network Login
F. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) bandwidth allocation
Answer: A,B,E

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NO.19 Which four are Switching Fabric features/Functions on the Switch 8800? (Choose
four)
A. Each Switch Fabric has a data channel to every module
B. Supports a hot-swappable, load-balancing Switch Fabric.
C. There is a data channel between the two Switch Fabrics.
D. Each Switch Fabric has a management channel to every module
E. Supports a hot-standby, hot-swappable redundant Switch Fabric
F. The master Switch Fabric is always set to slot #1 unless the fabric in slot #1 fails
G. The master Switch Fabric provides route calculation and management for the entire
chassis
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.20 Which two rules must be followed when configuring Link Aggregation groups on
the Switch 7700 1000BASE-T and 1000BASE-X modules? (Chosse two)
A. The Linux Aggregation group can start on any port.
B. All the ports in a Link Aggregation group must be consecutive
C. A single Link Aggregation group can span multiple Interface Modules
D. A maximum of eight ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation group
E. A maximum of twelve ports can belong to a single Link Aggregation roup
Answer: A,B

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Questions et réponses: 45 Q&As

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NO.1 How does the NameNode know DataNodes are available on a cluster running MapReduce v1
(MRv1)
A. DataNodes listed in the dfs.hosts file. The NameNode uses as the definitive list of available
DataNodes.
B. DataNodes heartbeat in the master on a regular basis.
C. The NameNode broadcasts a heartbeat on the network on a regular basis, and DataNodes
respond.
D. The NameNode send a broadcast across the network when it first starts, and DataNodes
respond.
Answer: B

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NO.2 What action occurs automatically on a cluster when a DataNode is marked as dead?
A. The NameNode forces re-replication of all the blocks which were stored on the dead DataNode.
B. The next time a client submits job that requires blocks from the dead DataNode, the JobTracker
receives no heart beats from the DataNode. The JobTracker tells the NameNode that the DataNode
is dead, which triggers block re-replication on the cluster.
C. The replication factor of the files which had blocks stored on the dead DataNode is temporarily
reduced, until the dead DataNode is recovered and returned to the cluster.
D. The NameNode informs the client which write the blocks that are no longer available; the client
then re-writes the blocks to a different DataNode.
Answer: A

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NO.3 How does HDFS Federation help HDFS Scale horizontally?
A. HDFS Federation improves the resiliency of HDFS in the face of network issues by removing the
NameNode as a single-point-of-failure.
B. HDFS Federation allows the Standby NameNode to automatically resume the services of an active
NameNode.
C. HDFS Federation provides cross-data center (non-local) support for HDFS, allowing a cluster
administrator to split the Block Storage outside the local cluster.
D. HDFS Federation reduces the load on any single NameNode by using the multiple, independent
NameNode to manage individual pars of the filesystem namespace.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Choose which best describe a Hadoop cluster's block size storage parameters once you set the
HDFS default block size to 64MB?
A. The block size of files in the cluster can be determined as the block is written.
B. The block size of files in the Cluster will all be multiples of 64MB.
C. The block size of files in the duster will all at least be 64MB.
D. The block size of files in the cluster will all be the exactly 64MB.
Answer: D

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NO.5 For a MapReduce job, on a cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1), what's the relationship
between tasks and task templates?
A. There are always at least as many task attempts as there are tasks.
B. There are always at most as many tasks attempts as there are tasks.
C. There are always exactly as many task attempts as there are tasks.
D. The developer sets the number of task attempts on job submission.
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which three distcp features can you utilize on a Hadoop cluster?
A. Use distcp to copy files only between two clusters or more. You cannot use distcp to copy data
between directories inside the same cluster.
B. Use distcp to copy HBase table files.
C. Use distcp to copy physical blocks from the source to the target destination in your cluster.
D. Use distcp to copy data between directories inside the same cluster.
E. Use distcp to run an internal MapReduce job to copy files.
Answer: B,D,E

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NO.7 Which two updates occur when a client application opens a stream to begin a file write on a
cluster running MapReduce v1 (MRv1)?
A. Once the write stream closes on the DataNode, the DataNode immediately initiates a black
report to the NameNode.
B. The change is written to the NameNode disk.
C. The metadata in the RAM on the NameNode is flushed to disk.
D. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is flushed disk.
E. The metadata in RAM on the NameNode is updated.
F. The change is written to the edits file.
Answer: E,F

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NO.1 Which of the following tools can be used to create one or more properties with a common
Applies
To class?
A. Application Explorer
B. Define Property Wizard
C. PAL
D. Class Explorer
Answer: B

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NO.2 What does "Build For Change(r)" mean?
A. Build applications without change control, in order to complete projects more quickly
B. Launch applications as soon as possible so that performance testing can be done in Production
C. Build applications that are more easily adaptable due to inevitable business change
D. Business architects initially build PRPC applications and system architects subsequently
change them
Answer: C

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NO.3 Which two statements are true about Declarative Expression rules? (Choose two.)
A. They can perform a computation
B. They can constrain a property to a range of values.
C. They can execute an Activity upon creation of a work object.
D. They can display the result of a Decision table
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which of the following statuses is the standard default status assigned to all new work
objects?
A. Open
B. New
C. Resolved-Completed
D. Start
Answer: B

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NO.5 When an Application Profile and Application Accelerator process is started, they both create
actual
PRPC work objects that keep track of the choices made and can be saved.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which two statements are true about work covers and covered work objects? (Choose three.)
A. A covered work object can belong to many work folders
B. Work covers can be nested within other work objects
C. Work covers can become a parent to one or more related work objects
D. Work covers can be resolved automatically when all covered work objects belonging to that
cover are resolved
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.7 Service level rules include which of the following time intervals? (Choose two.)
A. Milestone
B. Requirement
C. Goal
D. Deadline
Answer: C,D

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NO.8 The Application Accelerator can be utilized without first creating an Application Profile in the
Application Profile wizard.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.9 Why do Pegasystems best practices suggest limiting flow rules to 15 SmartShapes? (Excluding
Connectors, Notify, Comment, Pool, Swimlane, and Router shapes)
A. Flows with more than 15 shapes cannot be printed
B. More than 15 SmartShapes in one flow rule may result in performance issues
C. In order to improve readability, maintainability, and ease in traceability when debugging the
application processes
D. Flows with more than 15 SmartShapes cannot be updated
Answer: C

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NO.10 Decision Table rules can be edited in Excel.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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CTFL-UK CTAL-TTA-001 CTAL-TM-UK CTAL-TA dernières questions d'examen certification ISQI et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: CTFL-UK

Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL_UK))

Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CTAL-TTA-001

Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Technical Test Analyst (CTAL-TTA_001))

Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CTAL-TM-UK

Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Manager (CTAL-TM_UK))

Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

Code d'Examen: CTAL-TA

Nom d'Examen: ISQI (ISTQB Certified Tester Advanced Level - Test Analyst)

Questions et réponses: 65 Q&As

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Code d'Examen: MSC-122

Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Deploy WLAN Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 113 Q&As

Code d'Examen: MSC-121

Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design WLan Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 112 Q&As

Code d'Examen: MSC-111

Nom d'Examen: Motorola Solutions (Design Point (PTP and PMP) Solutions)

Questions et réponses: 114 Q&As

MSC-111 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/MSC-111.html

NO.1 Thermal Ducting is a phenomenon often seen over great distances of water and flat hot terrain. It is the
layering of different density air in the atmosphere and can cause significant signal fading. One possible
solution to Thermal Ducting is to:
A. use two physically separated single polarized antennas (also known as Space Diversity)
B. deploy a single polarization microwave system.
C. increase frequency to increase free space attenuation.
D. deploy a Dual Polarity antenna at both ends of a link.
Answer: A

Motorola Solutions   MSC-111 examen   MSC-111 examen

NO.2 When installing a PMP Access Point antenna on a tower, you need to install it at the proper height.
Motorola recommended practice is to mount the antenna at least how many feet/meters below the top of
the tower to protect it from lightning?
A. 0 feet / meters
B. 2 feet/0.6 meters
C. 10 feet/3 meters
D. 25 feet / 8 meters
Answer: B

Motorola Solutions   MSC-111 examen   MSC-111

NO.3 During the early stages of the design process, the current and planned IP addressing scheme on the
project description template is used to check:
A. IP addressing conflicts with defaults.
B. Open Shortest Path First (OSPF) configuration
C. IP addressing requirements for core and edge routers.
D. network component capacity design
Answer: A

Motorola Solutions   MSC-111 examen   MSC-111 examen

NO.4 Spatial Diversity is an antenna configuration that can be used to help point to point links: A. over long
distances of water where reflections are causing cancellation,
B. when interference from multiple directions is an issue.
C. when wind loading constraints will not allow a dual polarized antenna.
D. if site access is restricted because of security issues.
Answer: A

Motorola Solutions   MSC-111 examen   MSC-111   MSC-111

NO.5 Dynamic addressing simplifies network administration because the software keeps track of IP
addresses rather than requiring an administrator to manage the task. This means that a new device can
be added to a network without the hassle of manually assigning it a unique IP address.
Which of the following devices would typically use DHCP to get an address?
A. Switches/Hubs
B. Client/End Devices
C. Routers
D. Bridges
Answer: B

Motorola Solutions examen   MSC-111   MSC-111   certification MSC-111

NO.6 The amount of MAC addresses to Ethernet Port mappings in a switch is finite. What happens when the
available mappings in these lookup tables are exhausted?
A. The switch drops all traffic destined for MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables
B. The switch caches all traffic destined for the MAC addresses that are not in the lookup tables until
entries become available
C. The switch sends a congestion notification out the port to throttle the traffic until the lookup tables have
available entries
D. The switch floods traffic for all MAC addresses that do not have a lookup entry out of all its ports
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions   certification MSC-111   MSC-111 examen   MSC-111

NO.7 As a general design guideline, the signal strength required to meet a specific target modulation must
be exceeded in order to guarantee reliable communications. What is this excess signal strength called?
A. Receive Strength Ratio
B. Fade Margin
C. Signal Strength Ratio
D. Diversity Margin
Answer: B

Motorola Solutions examen   MSC-111   certification MSC-111   MSC-111

NO.8 Among the options below, which are the first three items you should identify when troubleshooting
Spanning Tree Protocol errors (select THREE)?
A. Which bridge is the root bridge
B. How many IP gateways are on the L2 segment
C. The topology of the L2 segment inclusive of all bridges
D. The location of redundant links and which of their ports are blocked
E. Which links use fiberoptic to Ethernet converters
F. How many MAC addresses are on the L2 segment
Answer: A,C,D

Motorola Solutions   MSC-111 examen   MSC-111

NO.9 Refraction of a radio wave could be caused by:
A. lack of transmit power.
B. sun spots.
C. change in air density.
D. antenna height.
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions   MSC-111   MSC-111   MSC-111

NO.10 What is the common term used to describe the process of limiting which VLAN IDs can traverse a
particular VLAN trunk port.?
A. VLAN Pruning
B. MVRP (Multiple VLAN Registration Protocol)
C. VTP (VLAN Trunk Protocol)
D. VLAN Sectioning
E. VLAN Negotiation
Answer: A

Motorola Solutions   MSC-111   certification MSC-111   MSC-111   certification MSC-111

NO.11 High Performance parabolic directional antennas are used in FTP network designs and provide:
A. side lobe suppression and interference mitigation.
B. broadest (or widest) beamwidth
C. superior wind loading for storm prone areas.
D. consistent spectrum analysis.
Answer: A

Motorola Solutions   MSC-111   MSC-111   MSC-111   MSC-111

NO.12 Microwave Point to Point systems can be susceptible to Multi-path cancellation. Which technology can
help mitigate Multi-Path?
A. IEEE 802.3AF
B. OFDM (Orthogonal Frequency Division Duplex)
C. Transmit time diversity
D. RF port replication
Answer: B

Motorola Solutions   MSC-111   MSC-111 examen   MSC-111   certification MSC-111

NO.13 What protocol does a Dynamic Domain name server work in conjunction with to dynamically create 'A'
address records?
A. Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP)
B. Transmission Control Protocol/Internet Protocol (TCP/IP)
C. LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)
D. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)
Answer: D

Motorola Solutions examen   certification MSC-111   MSC-111   MSC-111

NO.14 The main function of an antenna is to:
A. add power to a signal,
B. decode radio signals into data traffic.
C. direct radio energy in a desired direction.
D. protect transmitters from lightning.
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions   certification MSC-111   MSC-111   certification MSC-111   MSC-111 examen   MSC-111

NO.15 The reflection of a radio wave can affect the link quality:
A. negatively ONLY
B. positively ONLY
C. either negatively or positively
D. it does not affect link quality
Answer: C

Motorola Solutions   certification MSC-111   certification MSC-111   MSC-111   MSC-111 examen

CWAP PW0-270, de formation et d'essai

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Code d'Examen: PW0-270

Nom d'Examen: CWAP (Certified Wireless Analysis Professional)

Questions et réponses: 60 Q&As

PW0-270 Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/PW0-270.html

NO.1 In which 802.11 frames is the SSID present, provided the SSID is not removed through proprietary
software configuration by an administrator? (Choose 3)
A. Association Request
B. Reassociation Request
C. Probe Response
D. Disassociation
E. Authentication
F. Association Response
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.2 Using the exhibit as a reference, answer the following.
STA1 sent a data frame to Mesh AP2 destined for a local file server on the same subnet with MAC
address 00:11:22:33:44:55. Mesh AP2's mesh forwarding algorithm determined that the frame should be
forwarded through Mesh AP1.
In the frame sent from Mesh AP2 to Mesh AP1, what is true of the contents of the MAC header? (Choose
3)
A. SA = Mesh AP2's MAC Address
B. RA = Mesh AP1's MAC Address
C. TA = STA1's MAC Address
D. DA = 00:11:22:33:44:55
E. To DS = 0
F. From DS = 1
Answer: B,D,F

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NO.3 Which statements are true regarding Beacons from an AP in an HT infrastructure BSS that is configured
with multiple WLAN profiles? (Choose 3)
A. Beacons can be disabled for security purposes.
B. The BSSID and Source Address are always the same.
C. The Destination Address is always FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF.
D. The Receiver address and the BSSID are always the same.
E. When the SSID is "hidden," the ESS subfield of the Capability Information field distinguishes one BSS
from another.
F. All Beacons generated by APs contain a TIM information element.
G. The Beacon interval must be the same for all WLANs (SSIDs) supported by a single AP
Answer: B,C,F

CWAP   PW0-270 examen   PW0-270

NO.4 Which statement is true regarding the Association Identifier (AID) used in IEEE 802.11 WLANs?
A. The AID has a maximum value of 2048, and is used to uniquely identify a wireless client station
associated with an access point.
B. The AID has a maximum value of 2007, and resides in the duration/ID field of a PS-Poll frame.
C. The client station is assigned an AID value in the 802.11 authentication response frame.
D. The AID field is present only in Beacons frames.
E. The AID is used by the access point in EDCA mode to reduce duplicate transmissions when sending
multicasts.
Answer: B

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NO.5 According to 802.11-2007, in what frame type(s) might you find the PMK Count and PMKID List fields?
A. All frames that include the RSN IE
B. Only (Re)Association Request frames
C. Beacon and Probe Response frames
D. EAPoL 4-Way Handshake frames
E. Authentication and Association Request and Response frames
Answer: B

CWAP   certification PW0-270   PW0-270 examen   PW0-270   certification PW0-270

NO.6 What HT PPDU format is shown in the exhibit?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Non-HT format
D. Non-HT duplicate format
E. Dual Training Field format
F. ERP-OFDM format
Answer: A

certification CWAP   PW0-270   PW0-270 examen

NO.7 What IEEE 802.11 technology is illustrated by the exhibit?
A. Fragmentation
B. TCP Fragment Bursting
C. A-MSDU
D. A-MPDU E. U-APSD
F. Jumbo frames
Answer: C

CWAP   certification PW0-270   certification PW0-270   PW0-270

NO.8 What is the purpose of a PHY preamble.?
A. It provides the receiver(s) with an opportunity for RF channel synchronization prior to the start of the
PLCP header.
B. It communicates important information about the PSDU's length, rate, and upper layer protocol-related
parameters.
C. It provides a cyclic redundancy check (CRC) for the receiving station to validate that the PLCP header
was received correctly.
D. It indicates to the PHY the modulation that shall be used for transmission (and reception) of the PSDU.
Answer: A

CWAP examen   PW0-270 examen   PW0-270

NO.9 When a 5 GHz HT station in a 40 MHz BSS desires to protect a 40 MHz transmission from an OFDM
station using an RTS/CTS or CTS-to-Self exchange, what frame format is used for the RTS and/or CTS
frames?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Dual-CTS
D. Non-HT Duplicate
E. Phased Coexistence PPDU
Answer: D

CWAP   certification PW0-270   PW0-270   PW0-270   certification PW0-270   certification PW0-270

NO.10 In the frame decode shown, there are two sets of supported data rates. 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps are all
shown as "basic" data rates, and 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, 48, and 54 Mbps are shown simply as supported
data rates.
What is true of "basic" data rates in this context?
A. The AP requires all client stations to support Basic rates in order to associate to its BSS.
B. The highest data rate set to Basic is automatically used to send broadcast traffic such as Beacon
frames.
C. Basic rates are optional data rates for the BSS, often used for assuring connectivity for legacy stations.
D. Basic rates are only used for multicast traffic, and do not affect unicast traffic.
E. Basic rates are defined in an AP's service set to specify mandatory data rates for all retry frames.
Answer: A

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BCCPP BCCPA dernières questions d'examen certification Blue Coat et réponses publiés

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Code d'Examen: BCCPP

Nom d'Examen: Blue Coat (Blue Coat Certified Proxy Professional)

Questions et réponses: 94 Q&As

Code d'Examen: BCCPA

Nom d'Examen: Blue Coat (Blue Coat Certified Proxy Administrator V3.03)

Questions et réponses: 242 Q&As

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BCCPA Démo gratuit à télécharger: http://www.pass4test.fr/BCCPA.html

NO.1 Which of the following types of traffic are not scanned with ICAP REQMOD?
A. HTTP PUT data
B. FTP uploads
C. FTP responses
D. HTTP POST data
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which option is NOT available to upload logfiles from ProxySG?
A. HTTP server
B. FTP server
C. Blue Coat Reporter server
D. CIFS/SAMBA file server
Answer: C

Blue Coat   BCCPA   certification BCCPA   certification BCCPA

NO.3 The ProxySG gives you the ability to write policies through.
A. the graphical visual Policy Manager and/or the command-line interface
B. Visual Policy Manager only
C. the graphical visual Policy Manager, the command-line interface and/or imported text file
Answer: C

Blue Coat   BCCPA   BCCPA examen

NO.4 The goal of creating and using Notify User objects is (Choose all that apply)
(a)to deny access to a URL
(b)to deliver a splash page to the clients
(c)to warn a user before allowing access to a URL
A.a and b only
B.b and c only
C.All of the above
Answer: B

Blue Coat examen   BCCPA   BCCPA

NO.5 An administrator created a PIN for the ProxySG front panel, disabled the built-in administrative account
and introduced policy-based admin auttiohration, and secured die serial port. After this was done, all the
PINs, passwords and policy settings were lost. What options are available to regain access to the
appliance? (choose all that apply)
(a)Return ProxySG appliance to Blue Coat to restore a default SGCS image
(b)Restore the factory settings by pressing and holding a reset button for 5 seconds, configure the
appliance anew or restore its configuraoon from a backup
(c)Try out all 10000 combinations of PIN for the front panel until you find the right one
(d)Remove the hard disk from the ProxySG, connect it as an external SAT A disk to any Windows or Linux
computer; clear the admin entry in the /etc/ pssswd file on that disk. Put the hard disk back in ProxySG,
start it up and reset the admin's password.
A.a only
B.a and b only
C.a and c only
D.a and d only
E.All of the above
Answer: B

certification Blue Coat   BCCPA   BCCPA examen

NO.6 What can be concluded about this request processing order?
A. ProxyAV Is accessed in ICAP REOMOD mode
B. ProxyAV is accessed ICAP RESPMOO mode
C. ProxySG with ProxyAV is deployed as a forward proxy
Answer: A

Blue Coat   BCCPA   certification BCCPA   certification BCCPA

NO.7 A ProxySG is designed to do which of rhe following? (choose all that apply)
(a)Enhance security through authentication, virus scanning, and logging.
(b)Increase performance through TCP optimization, HTTP caching and pipelining.
(c)Control content with URL filtering, content stripping, and HTTP header analysis.
A.a and b only
B.b and c only
C.a and c only
D. All of the above
Answer: D

certification Blue Coat   BCCPA   BCCPA   BCCPA   BCCPA examen

NO.8 Which is NOT a support- related site for Blue Coat products?
A.http://forums.bluecoot.com
B. http://services.bluecoar.com
C. http://download.bluecoat.com
D. http://webpulse.bluecoat.com
Answer: D

Blue Coat   certification BCCPA   BCCPA examen   BCCPA

NO.9 The Connect HTTP method is reserved for use with a proxy that can dynamically switch to being a
tunnel e.g. SSL tunneling.?
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

Blue Coat   BCCPA   BCCPA   BCCPA examen

NO.10 What acceleration techniques are NOT part of MACHS?
A. Bandwidth management (traffic shaping)
B. Protocol optimization and compression
C. IP layer route optimization
D. Object caching
E. Byte caching
Answer: C

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NO.11 What are the possible configurable options when configuring destination address in proxy services?
(Choose all that apply)
(a)All
(b)Any
(c)Explicit
(d)Transparent
A.a, c and d only
B.a, b and c only
C.b, c andd only
D.All of the above
Answer: A

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NO.12 The default policy for ProxySG is DENY. Network administrator creates a VPM policy allowing access
to some Web host only for certain users (see picture). When installing this policy, ProxySG issues a
warning that this rule will be ignored. What change can be applied in order to fix this?
A. Add another rule to the Web Access layer creating an exception for users NOT allowedto access the
host.
B. Add another Web Access layer and set its default action to Allow.
C. Add Web Authentication layer with a rule having Force Authenticate action.
D. Add Web content layer with a rule preventing serving content fromProxySG cache to unauthorized
users.
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which of the following Authentication Realms are supported by Blue Coat in SGOS 5.3? (Choose all
that apply)
(a)IWA
(b)RADIUS
(C)LDAP
(d)TACACS+
A.a, b and d only
B.b, c and d only
C.a, b andc only
D.All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following methods is NOT appropriate for the initial setup for a ProxySG 2XX series?
A. Serial console Cable
B. LCD Panel
C. Web Wizard accessing HTTPS port 8083
D. Blue Coat Director applying a profile
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which ProxySG technology uses the Gaca processing pipeline similar to the one shown in the picture?
A. Blue Coat Reporter
B. MACH5
C. BCWF
D. ProxySG Services
Answer: B

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NO.16 Forward proxy of SSL allows applying policies to encrypted SSL data.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which streaming services are supported by ProxySG?
A. QuickTime, Windows Media, and Real Media
B. Windows Media, Real Media, and Flash
C. QuickTime, Flash, and MP4
Answer: B

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NO.18 What are the types of challenges that can be authenticated by ProxySG? (choose all that apply)
(a)Administrator attempts to access Management console
(b) user attempts to access the internet
(c)Administrator attempts to access SG via SSH
(d)User attempts to access a CIFS file server
A.All of the above
B.b, c andd only
C.a, c and d only
D.a, b and c only
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which Instant Messaging proxies are available on the ProxySG? (Choose all that apply)
(a)AIM (b)Jabber
(c)MSN
(d)Yahoo
A.a, b and c only
B.a, b and d only
C.A. c and d only
D.b. c and d only
E.All of the above
Answer: C

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NO.20 A single ProxySG appliance can act as a Gateway Proxy and WAN Acceleration Proxy at the same
time.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: 9A0-327

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe CQ 5.5 Component Developer ACE Exam)

Questions et réponses: 92 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 9A0-164

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Captivate® 5.5 ACE Exam)

Questions et réponses: 161 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 9A0-154

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Adobe Premiere Pro CS5 ACE Exam)

Questions et réponses: 150 Q&As

Code d'Examen: 9A0-182

Nom d'Examen: Adobe (Flex 4.5 ACE Exam )

Questions et réponses: 96 Q&As

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NO.1 You have created a Flex application that contains a custom component with the id of myComp The
Application class needs to be altered whenever a property named score is updated inside myComp.
Which approach should be used to implement this functionality while encapsulation?
A. myComp would dispatch a custom event when score is changed
B. The Application anon class would bind to the score property in myComp
C. The Application class would add an event listener to the control updating score in myComp
D. The score property would be changed to a public property
Answer: A

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NO.2 When design pattern is used to define the passing of typed data between the client and remote server?
A. Mediator
B. Factory
C. Fa ade
D. Data transfer Object
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the return type of the E4X statement: imageData.image
A. XML
B. XMLList
C. String
D. Array
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which statement describes the access rules for a variable marked as private?
A. Any class
B. Any class that extends the class
C. The class itself
D. Other classes in the same package
Answer: C

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NO.5 Given the following snippet var ac ArrayCollection = new ArrayCollection().
ac.addItem(0).
ac addItem(1).
ac addItem(2).
ac.addItem(3).
acaddItemAt(2.l).
var kuint = ac[1]
What is the value of k?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
Answer: B

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NO.6 Given the following code:
user firstName = "Bruno";
Which declaration would enable you to set the firstName property as shown?
A. public functionsetFirstName (value String):void{}
B. public function getFirstName{}: String{}
C. public function get firstName():void{}
D. public function set firstName(value String):void{}
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which annotation is used in an ActionScript class to map it to a corresponding Java class
A. [RemoteObject]
B. [Bindable]
C. [RemoteClass]
D. [ClassMap]
Answer: C

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NO.8 Which statement describes ArrayList and ArrayCollection components?
A. Both ArrayList and ArrayCollection can be used as data providers for Spark list-based controls
B. ArrayList collection are sortable and filterable
C. When using an Array as a data provider for a Spark list-based control, it will automatically be wrapped
within ArrayList
D. ArrayList supports cursors, unlike ArrayCollection
Answer: A

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NO.9 Give the ActionScript class:
public class MyClass implements IResizable { }
What can be said about MyClass?
A. MyClass inherits all the functionality of the IResizable class
B. MyClass is the super class of the IResizable class
C. IResizable is the super class of MyClass
D. MyClass must have all methods defined in IResizable
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are creating a custom component, MyComp based on the UIComponent class. What statement
correctly declares the MyComp class.?
A. Public class MyComp extend UIComponent 0
B. Public class MyComp implements UIComponent 0
C. Public class UIComponent as MyComp 0
D. Public class MyComp base UIComponent
Answer: A

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Code d'Examen: PGCES-02

Nom d'Examen: PostgreSQL-CE (PostgreSQL CE 8 Silver)

Questions et réponses: 145 Q&As

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NO.1 The following SQL statements were executed using psql. Select the appropriate statement about the
result. LISTEN sign_v; BEGIN; NOTIFY sign_v; COMMIT; LISTEN sign_v;
A.At the point that 'NOTIFY sign_v' is executed, a message that starts with "Asynchronous notification
'sign_v' received" is output.
B.At the point that 'COMMIT' is executed, a message that starts with "Asynchronous notification 'sign_v'
received" is output.
C.At the point that 'SELECT * FROM pg_user;" is executed, a message that starts with "Asynchronous
notification 'sign_v' received" is output.
D.When 'LISTEN sign_v' is executed for the second time, a message that starts with "Asynchronous
notification 'sign_v' received" is output.
E.The message "Asynchronous notification 'sign_v' received" is not received while in this connection.
Answer:B

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NO.2 A table named "sample" is defined as below. Select two statements which will generate a constraint
error. CREATE TABLE sample ( i INTEGER PRIMARY KEY, j INTEGER, CHECK ( i > 0 AND j < 0 ) );
A.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (1, 0);
B.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (2, -2);
C.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (3, NULL);
D.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (NULL, -4);
E.INSERT INTO sample VALUES (5, -5);
Answer:A D

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NO.3 Given the following two table definitions, select one SQL statement which will cause an error. CREATE
TABLE sample1 (id INTEGER, data TEXT); CREATE TABLE sample2 (id INTEGER);
A.SELECT id AS data, data FROM sample1;
B.SELECT id, id FROM sample1;
C.SELECT s1.id, s2.id FROM sample1 AS s1, sample1 AS s2;
D.SELECT s1.id, s2.id FROM sample1 s1, sample2 s2;
E.SELECT s1.id, s2.data FROM sample1 s1, sample2 s2;
Answer:E

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NO.4 Select two suitable statements regarding creating a new table.
A.There is no upper limit to the number of columns in a table.
B.A newly created table is empty and has 0 rows.
C.You can only use alphabetic characters for a table name.
D.The row name must be within 16 characters.
E.The SQL 'CREATE TABLE' statement is used to create a new table.
Answer:B E

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NO.5 The "sample" table consists of the following data: How many rows are returned by executing the
following SQL statement? SELECT * FROM sample WHERE v ~ 'ab';
A.0 rows
B.1 row
C.2 rows
D.3 rows
E.4 rows
Answer:C

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NO.6 The "sample" table consists of the following data: How many rows are returned by executing the
following SQL statement? SELECT DISTINCT ON (data) * FROM sample;
A.2 rows
B.3 rows
C.4 rows
D.5 rows
E.6 rows
Answer:B

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NO.7 Four SQL statements were executed in the following order. CREATE TABLE foo (bar INT); ALTER
TABLE foo ALTER bar TYPE BIGINT; ALTER TABLE foo ADD baz VARCHAR(5); ALTER TABLE foo
DROP bar; Select two SQL statements that generate an error when executed.
A.INSERT INTO foo VALUES ('12345');
B.INSERT INTO foo VALUES ('5000000000');
C.INSERT INTO foo VALUES ('ABC');
D.INSERT INTO foo VALUES (2000000000);
E.INSERT INTO foo VALUES (NULL);
Answer:B D

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NO.8 Select two suitable statements about sequences.
A.A sequence always returns a 4-byte INTEGER type value, so the maximum value is 2147483647.
B.A sequence is defined by 'CREATE SEQUENCE', and deleted by 'DROP SEQUENCE'.
C.Although the "nextval" function is called during a transaction, it will have no effect if that transaction is
rolled back.
D.A sequence always generates 0 or consecutive positive numbers.
E.A sequence number can be set by calling the "setval" function.
Answer:B E

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NO.9 Select two suitable statements regarding the data types of PostgreSQL.
A.One field can handle up to 1GB of data.
B.'n' in CHARACTER(n) represents the number of bytes.
C.Only the INTEGER type can be declared as an array.
D.There is a non-standard PostgreSQL data type, called Geometric data type, which handles
2-dimensional data.
E.A large object data type can be used to store data of unlimited size.
Answer:A D

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NO.10 Table "t1" is defined as follows: CREATE TABLE t1 (value VARCHAR(5)); A set of SQL statements were
executed in the following order. Select the number of rows that table "t1" has after execution. BEGIN;
INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('AA'); SAVEPOINT point1; INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('BB'); SAVEPOINT
point2; INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('CC'); ROLLBACK TO point1; INSERT INTO t1 VALUES ('DD'); END;
A.1 row
B.2 rows
C.3 rows
D.4 rows
E.0 rows
Answer:B

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NO.11 The following is the result of executing the createlang command which is installed with PostgreSQL.
$ createlang -U postgres --list mydb Procedural Languages Name | Trusted? ---------+--------- plpgsql | yes
Select two correct statements from below.
A.The procedural language plpgsql is installed in the database mydb using the above command.
B.The procedural language plpgsql can be used in the database mydb.
C.plpgsql is a trusted language, so it can execute the OS commands on the server side.
D.plpgsql is a trusted language, so it can read/write OS files on the server side.
E.plpgsql is a safe language with restricted operations.
Answer:B E

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NO.12 Table "t1" is defined below. Table "t1" has a column "id" of type INTEGER, and a column "name" of
type TEXT. t1: The following SQL is executed while client "A" is connected. BEGIN; SELECT * FROM t1
WHERE id = 2 FOR UPDATE; SELECT * FROM t1 WHERE id = 1 FOR UPDATE; -- (*) While the second
'SELECT' statement, shown with (*), is being executed, a separate client "B" connects and executes the
following SQL. Select the correct statement about the execution results. UPDATE t1 SET name = 'turtle'
WHERE id = 2; Note: the default transaction isolation level is set to "read committed".
A.The update process for client "B" is blocked until the current connection for client "A" is finished.
B.The update process for client "B" is blocked until the current transaction for client "A" is finished.
C.The 'UPDATE' process for client "B" proceeds regardless of the condition of client "A".
D.The process of client "B" immediately generates an error.
E.The processes for both clients are blocked, and an error stating that a deadlock has been detected is
generated.
Answer:B

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NO.13 The table "custom" is defined below. The "id" column and "introducer" column are of INTEGER type,
and the "email" column is of TEXT type. id | email | introducer ----+----------------+----------- 2 |
aaa@example.com | 1 3 | bbb@example.com | 2 4 | ccc@example.com | 2 Three SQL statements were
executed in the following order: INSERT INTO custom SELECT max(id) 1, 'ddd@example.com', 4 FROM
custom; UPDATE custom SET introducer = 999 WHERE email = 'bbb@example.com'; DELETE FROM
custom WHERE introducer NOT IN (SELECT id FROM custom); Select the number of rows in the
"custom" table after the execution.
A.0 rows
B.1 row
C.2 rows
D.3 rows
E.4 rows
Answer:C

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NO.14 Select the most suitable statement about the PostgreSQL license from below.
A.PostgreSQL is distributed under the GPL license.
B.PostgreSQL is distributed under the PostgreSQL license.
C.PostgreSQL is distributed under the LGPL license.
D.PostgreSQL is distributed under the BSD license.
E.PostgreSQL is distributed under the X11(MIT) license.
Answer:D

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NO.15 The tables "t1" and "t2" are defined below. The tables "t1" and "t2" have columns "id" which are type of
INTEGER and column "name"s which are type of TEXT. t1 t2 The following SQL command was executed.
Select the number of rows in the result. SELECT * FROM t1 NATURAL FULL OUTER JOIN t2;
A.2 rows
B.3 rows
C.4 rows
D.5 rows
E.6 rows
Answer:D

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NO.16 The "animal" table consists of the following data: Select the correct result returned by executing the
following SQL statement: SELECT name FROM animal ORDER BY weight DESC LIMIT 2 OFFSET 1;
A.A syntax error will occur.
Answer:A

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NO.17 Select the most suitable statement about PostgreSQL from below.
A.PostgreSQL is a card-type database management system.
B.PostgreSQL is a hierarchical database management system.
C.PostgreSQL is a network-type database management system.
D.PostgreSQL is an XML database management system.
E.PostgreSQL is a relational database management system.
Answer:E

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NO.18 Select an incorrect statement regarding the following SQL statement. Note that "user_view" is a view.
CREATE OR REPLACE RULE rule_1 AS ON UPDATE TO user_view DO INSTEAD NOTHING;
A.It is defining a rule "rule_1".
B.It will replace "rule_1" if it already exists.
C.Executing 'UPDATE user_view' will no longer output errors.
D.When executing 'UPDATE user_view', data is updated in the table that is the origin of the view.
E.'DROP RULE rule_1 ON user_view' deletes the above definition.
Answer:D

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NO.19 PostgreSQL can use an index to access a table. Select two incorrect statements about indexes.
A.An index is created by 'CREATE INDEX', and deleted by 'DROP INDEX'.
B.By using an index effectively, searching and sorting performs faster.
C.There are B-tree, Hash, R-tree and GiST index types.
D.By creating an index, performance always improves.
E.Creating an unused index does not affect the performance of a database at all.
Answer:D E

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NO.20 SQL statements were executed in the following order: CREATE TABLE fmaster (id INTEGER
PRIMARY KEY, name TEXT); CREATE TABLE ftrans (id INTEGER REFERENCES fmaster (id), stat
INTEGER, date DATE); INSERT INTO fmaster VALUES (1, 'itemA'); INSERT INTO ftrans VALUES (1, 1,
CURRENT_DATE); Select two SQL statements that will generate an error when executed next.
A.INSERT INTO ftrans VALUES (1, 1, CURRENT_DATE);
B.INSERT INTO ftrans VALUES (2, 1, '2007-07-07');
C.UPDATE fmaster SET name = 'itemAX' WHERE id = 1;
D.UPDATE fmaster SET id = 100 WHERE id = 1;
E.UPDATE ftrans SET id = 200 WHERE id = 1;
Answer:A C

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NO.21 Select two incorrect statements concerning PostgreSQL license.
A.It can be used freely.
B.It can be duplicated freely.
C.It can be freely redistributed.
D.Developers are responsible for its maintenance support.
E.Developers are only responsible for handling its crucial faults.
Answer:D E

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NO.22 Select two suitable statements about major version upgrades of PostgreSQL from below.
A.You can use the databases of the old major version.
B.To use the data from the old version, you only need to replace the program.
C.To use the data from the old version, you need to conduct a backup and restore.
D.There is a possibility of configuration parameter changes after major version upgrades.
E.Upgrade scripts can be executed while the old version of PostgreSQL is running.
Answer:C D

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NO.23 Select three SQL statements which return NULL.
A.SELECT 0 = NULL;
B.SELECT NULL != NULL;
C.SELECT NULL IS NULL;
D.SELECT NULL;
E.SELECT 'null'::TEXT;
Answer:A B D

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NO.24 Select one incorrect statement concerning the relational data model.
A.It expresses the real world in a collection of 2-dimensional tables called a relation.
B.It is a model based on set theory.
C.It has a logical structure independent of physical data structure.
D.It is made up of a multiple stage hierarchy where each of the set elements has parent child relationships.
E.It is a model that was proposed by E.F. Codd in 1970.
Answer:D

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NO.25 Select the correct SQL statement which concatenates strings 'ABC' and 'abc' to form 'ABCabc'.
A.SELECT 'ABC' . 'abc';
B.SELECT cat('ABC', 'abc') FROM pg_operator;
C.SELECT 'ABC' 'abc';
D.SELECT 'ABC' 'abc' FROM pg_operator;
E.SELECT 'ABC' || 'abc';
Answer:E

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NO.26 Select two incorrect statements regarding 'DOMAIN'.
A.When defining a domain, you can add a default value and constraints to the original data.
B.Domain is a namespace existing between databases and objects such as tables.
C.A domain is created by 'CREATE DOMAIN'.
D.A domain can be used as a column type when defining a table.
E.To define a domain, both input and output functions are required.
Answer:B E

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NO.27 Select two transaction isolation levels supported in PostgreSQL.
A.DIRTY READ
B.READ COMMITTED
C.REPEATABLE READ
D.PHANTOM READ
E.SERIALIZABLE
Answer:B E

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NO.28 Select two suitable statements regarding the following SQL statement: CREATE TRIGGER trigger_1
AFTER UPDATE ON sales FOR EACH ROW EXECUTE PROCEDURE write_log();
A.It is defining a trigger "trigger_1".
B.Every time 'UPDATE' is executed on the "sales" table, the "write_log" function is called once.
C.The "write_log" function is called before 'UPDATE' takes place.
D.'UPDATE' is not executed if "write_log" returns NULL.
E.'DROP TRIGGER trigger_1 ON sales;' deletes the defined trigger.
Answer:A E

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NO.29 Select two correct descriptions about views.
A.A view is created by 'DECLARE VIEW', and deleted by 'DROP VIEW'.
B.A view is a virtual table which does not exist.
C.A view is created to simplify complicated queries.
D.You can create a view with the same name as already existing tables.
E.A view only exists while the postmaster is running, and is deleted when the postmaster stops.
Answer:B C

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NO.30 The table "score" is defined as follows: gid | score -----+------ 1 | 70 1 | 60 2 | 100 3 | 80 3 | 50 The
following query was executed. Select the number of rows in the result. SELECT gid, max(score) FROM
score GROUP BY gid HAVING max(score) > 60;
A.1 row
B.2 rows
C.3 rows
D.4 rows
E.5 rows
Answer:C

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